Master the CompTIA A+ Certification Core 2 Exam 220-1102 Exam with Confidence!

A risk analysis must be completed before a change request for an upcoming server deployment can be approved 1

Risk analysis is an important step in the change management process because it helps identify and mitigate potential risks before changes are implemented. Once the risks have been analyzed and the appropriate measures have been taken to minimize them, the change can be approved and implemented.

The filesystem that is supported by both Macs and Windows PCs is D. exFAT. exFAT is a file system that is designed to be used on flash drives like USB sticks and SD cards. It is supported by both Macs and Windows PCs, and it can handle large files and volumes

https://www.diskpart.com/articles/file-system-for-mac-and-windows-03 10.html

The correct answers are E. Windows Defender and A. File Explorer. Windows Defender is a built-in antivirus program that can detect and remove malicious software from a workstation. File Explorer can be used to locate and delete files associated with the malicious software1

The technician's action of setting the phone to silent while troubleshooting the customer's PC is an example of avoiding distractions. By setting the phone to silent, the technician is ensuring that they are able to focus on the task at hand without any distractions that could potentially disrupt their workflow. This is an important practice when handling customer's confidential material, as it ensures that the technician is able to focus on the task and not be distracted by any external sources. Furthermore, it also adheres to user privacy policies, as the technician is not exposing any confidential information to any external sources.

The issue is specific to the user’s profile, so the technician should rebuild the profile. Rebuilding the profile will create a new profile and transfer the user’s data to the new profile1

The law firm wants to retain more versions of the backups when possible, so the best backup method for the technician to implement in this scenario would be Incremental backup. Incremental backups only save the changes made since the last backup, which allows for more frequent backups and minimizes the amount of storage required. This would allow the law firm to retain more than three versions of backups without risking backup failure.

To retain more versions of backups, the technician should implement an Incremental backup method12

An incremental backup method only backs up the data that has changed since the last backup, so it requires less storage space than a full backup12

System Restore is a feature that allows the user to revert the system to a previous state. However, this can also restore the malware that was removed by the technician. Disabling System Restore can prevent the operating system from automatically returning to an infected state. Enabling antivirus, educating the user, and enabling System Restore are good preventive measures, but they do not address the question. Disabling antivirus can make the system more vulnerable to malware attacks

Least privilege is the principle that is used to ensure users have the appropriate level of access to perform their job functions. Least privilege means granting users only the minimum amount of access rights and permissions they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. Least privilege reduces the risk of unauthorized access, data leakage, malware infection, or accidental damage by limiting what users can do on the system or network. Access control list, multifactor authentication, and mobile device management are not principles, but rather mechanisms or methods that can implement least privilege. Access control list is a list that specifies the users or groups that are allowed or denied access to a resource, such as a file, folder, or printer. Multifactor authentication is a method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity, such as a password, a token, or a biometric factor. Mobile device management is a tool that allows managing and securing mobile devices, such as smartphones or tablets, that are used by employees to access corporate data or applications. References:

• Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 25
• [CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide], page 1003

Classification: a) Phishing

This email is a phishing attempt, as it tries to trick the user into clicking on a malicious link that could compromise their account or personal information. Some suspicious items in this email are:

• The email has a generic greeting and does not address the user by name.
• The email has spelling errors, such as “unusal” and “Locaked”.
• The email uses a sense of urgency and fear to pressure the user into clicking on the link.
• The email does not match the official format or domain of the IT Help Desk at CompTIA.
• The email has two black bat icons, which are not related to CompTIA or IT support.

The appropriate resolution for this email is A. Report email to Information Security. The user should not click on the link, reply to the email, or provide any personal or account information. The user should forward the email to the Information Security team or use a professional email form to report the phishing attempt. The user should also delete the email from their inbox and trash folder.

The suspicious items to select are:

• b) From address
• d) Hyperlinks

These items indicate that the email is not from a legitimate source and that the link is potentially malicious. The other items are not suspicious in this case, as the to address is the user’s own email and there are no attachments.

Classification: b) Spam

This email is a spam email, as it is an unsolicited and unwanted message that tries to persuade the user to participate in a survey and claim a reward. Some suspicious items in this email are:

• The email offers a free wireless headphone as an incentive, which is too good to be true.
• The email does not provide any details about the survey company, such as its name, address, or contact information.
• The email contains an external survey link, which may lead to a malicious or fraudulent website.
• The email does not have an unsubscribe option, which is required by law for commercial emails.

The appropriate resolution for this email is C. Unsubscribe. The user should look for an unsubscribe link or button at the bottom of the email and follow the instructions to opt out of receiving future emails from the sender. The user should also mark the email as spam or junk in their email client, which will help filter out similar emails in the future. The user should not click on the survey link, reply to the email, or provide any personal or financial information.

Classification: c) Legitimate

This email is a legitimate email, as it is from a trusted source and has a valid purpose. There are no suspicious items in this email, as the from address, the to address, the attachment, and the email body are all consistent and relevant. The appropriate resolution for this email is B. Perform no additional actions. The user can open the attachment and review the orientation material as instructed. The user does not need to report, unsubscribe, or delete this email.

A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated

Classification: a) Phishing

This email is a phishing attempt, as it tries to deceive the user into downloading and running a malicious attachment that could compromise their system or data. Some suspicious items in this email are:

• The email has a generic greeting and does not address the user by name or username.
• The email has an urgent tone and claims that a security patch needs to be installed immediately.
• The email has an attachment named “patch1.exe”, which is an executable file that could contain malware or ransomware.
• The email does not match the official format or domain of CompTIA Information Security.

The appropriate resolution for this email is A. Report email to Information Security. The user should not open the attachment, reply to the email, or provide any personal or account information. The user should forward the email to the Information Security team or use a professional email form to report the phishing attempt. The user should also delete the email from their inbox and trash folder.

A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated

Classification: c) Legitimate

This email is a legitimate email, as it is from a trusted source and has a valid purpose. There are no suspicious items in this email, as the from address, the to address, and the email body are all consistent and relevant. The appropriate resolution for this email is B. Perform no additional actions. The user can reply to the email and thank the sender for the interview opportunity. The user does not need to report, unsubscribe, or delete this email.

A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated

 Date and time is the most likely cause of the issue. The date and time settings on a workstation affect the validity of the certificates used by websites to establish secure connections. If the date and time are incorrect, the workstation may not recognize the certificate as valid and display an invalid certificate error. Other workstations on the same local network may not have this issue if their date and time are correct. User access control, UEFI boot mode, and log-on times are not likely causes of the issue. User access control is a feature that prevents unauthorized changes to the system by prompting for confirmation or credentials. UEFI boot mode is a firmware interface that controls the boot process of the workstation. Log-on times are settings that restrict when a user can log in to the workstation. None of these factors affect the validity of the certificates used by websites. References:

• Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 14
• CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 456

The Network & Internet settings in Windows 10 allow the user to input the SSID and password of a Wi-Fi network, as well as manage other network-related options, such as airplane mode, mobile hotspot, VPN, proxy, etc1. To access the Network & Internet settings, the user can select the Start button, then select Settings > Network & Internet2. Alternatively, the user can right-click the Wi-Fi icon on the taskbar and click "Open Network & Internet Settings"3.

The System settings in Windows 10 allow the user to configure the display, sound, notifications, power, storage, and other system-related options1. The Personalization settings in Windows 10 allow the user to customize the background, colors, lock screen, themes, fonts, and other appearance-related options1. The Accounts settings in Windows 10 allow the user to manage the user accounts, sign-in options, sync settings, and other account-related options1. None of these settings can be used to input the SSID and password of a Wi-Fi network.

References:

• The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide1, page 221, 222, 223, 224.

app files are application bundles that contain all the necessary files and resources for a Mac app. They can be easily deleted by dragging them to the Trash or using Launchpad12. Other file types, such as .exe, .dmg, .rpm, and .pkg, are either not compatible with macOS or require additional steps to uninstall34.

References: 1 Uninstall apps on your Mac - Apple Support(https://support.apple.com/en-us/102610) 2 How to Uninstall Apps on a Mac (and Make Sure Leftover Files Are …(https://www.pcmag.com/how-to/uninstall-delete-apps-from-mac) 3 How to install and uninstall software on a Mac - Laptop Mag(https://www.laptopmag.com/articles/install-unininstall-mac-software) 4 How to completely uninstall an app on a Mac and delete all junk files(https://www.xda-developers.com/how-to-uninstall-app-mac/).

BitLocker is a Windows security feature that provides encryption for entire volumes, addressing the threats of data theft or exposure from lost, stolen, or inappropriately decommissioned devices1. BitLocker is available on supported devices running Windows 10 or 11 Pro, Enterprise, or Education2. Windows 10 Home does not support BitLocker3, and Windows 10 Embedded is designed for specialized devices and does not offer BitLocker as a feature4. Therefore, the most appropriate Windows 10 edition for a single user who wants to encrypt a hard drive with BitLocker is Professional.

References1: BitLocker overview - Windows Security | Microsoft Learn2: Device encryption in Windows - Microsoft Support3: Can You Turn on BitLocker on Windows 10 Home?4: How to enable device encryption on Windows 10 Home

Isolating the machine from the network is a good practice when troubleshooting a PC that is suspected of being infected with malware. This can prevent the malware from spreading to other devices on the network or communicating with external servers that may control or exploit the malware. Isolating the machine can be done by disconnecting the network cable, disabling the wireless adapter, or blocking the network traffic with a firewall.

devmgmt.msc is the MMC snap-in that opens the Device Manager, a tool that allows the technician to view and manage the hardware devices and their drivers on the computer1. If the applications are not updating properly, it could be due to outdated, corrupted, or incompatible drivers that prevent the hardware from functioning normally. The technician can use the Device Manager to update, uninstall, rollback, or disable the drivers, as well as scan for hardware changes, troubleshoot problems, and view device properties2.

gpedit.msc is the MMC snap-in that opens the Group Policy Editor, a tool that allows the technician to configure the local or domain group policy settings for the computer or a group of computers3. Group policy settings can affect the security, performance, and functionality of the system, but they are not directly related to the application updates or the hardware drivers.

perfmon.msc is the MMC snap-in that opens the Performance Monitor, a tool that allows the technician to monitor and analyze the performance of the system and its components, such as processor, memory, disk, network, etc4. Performance Monitor can display real-time data or collect log data for later analysis, as well as generate reports and alerts based on the performance counters5. Performance Monitor can help the technician identify and diagnose performance issues, but it does not provide a way to manage the hardware drivers.

References:

• The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide6, page 223, 225, 227, 228.