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Free CIMA E2 Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 3

Questions 21

There are many implications for an organisation when using PRINCE 2 for managing projects. Which of the following statements are correct?

Options:
A.

The Project Manager can make decisions independently without the approval of the board

B.

The Project Manager must follow a restricted step by step procedure

C.

All six processes and the many sub processes must be followed

D.

Project staff must operate under a strictly managed and controlled regime

E.

All actions must be within the bounds of agreed project objectives and scope

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Questions 22

Barney (1991) identified four criteria necessary for a resource to be classed as unique and thus give competitive advantage. One of these is that it shouldn't be substitutable and another is that it should be rare.

 

Which TWO of the options below make up the list of four?

Options:
A.

Valuable

B.

Imperfectly Imitable

C.

Perfectly Imitable

D.

Costly to obtain

Questions 23

Projects carried out using the PRINCE2 methodology are always set out in a series of distinct and sequential stages. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a planned break between stages?

Options:
A.

The project team is required to break and regroup ready for the next package of work.

B.

The project board can make a decision as to whether the project business case is still viable.

C.

The progress of the project can be reviewed to ensure this justifies the continuation of the project.

D.

Risks to the project can be reassessed before further commitments of money or resources. 

Questions 24

The manager of Company A has decided to upgrade the IT systems in 18 months time. Although the employees understand the need and benefits from the change there is still some resistance from fear of the unknown and a question mark over the security of their jobs.

 

Which TWO of the methods below for dealing with change are most appropriate under these circumstances?

Options:
A.

Coercion

B.

Education and communication

C.

Facilitation and support

D.

Participation

Questions 25

Which of the following are examples of problems associated with group working?

 

(i) The Abilene paradox

(ii) Synergy

(iii) Risky Shift

(iv) Groupthink

(v) Conformity

Options:
A.

All of the above

B.

(i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

C.

(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

D.

(ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

Questions 26

The Thomas-Kilmann model suggests five conflict handling strategies. Which THREE of the following are part of the model?

Options:
A.

Competing: both parties seek to maximise their own interests and goals thus creating winners and losers. 

B.

Conflict reduction: involves building on areas of agreement and changing attitudes and perceptions by use of compromises and concessions.

C.

Collaborating: involves a 'win-win' strategy which is achieved through joint confrontation of the problem.

D.

Conflict suppression: involves threatened authority or force or smoothing over the conflict by de-emphasing the seriousness of the situation.

E.

Accommodation: involves a strategy in which one party puts the other party's interest first even when it is to its own disadvantage.

Questions 27

Which of the following statements relating to negotiation are incorrect?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:
A.

There are always at least two parties present in any negotiation process.

B.

Negotiation occurs when parties prefer to search for an agreement rather than openly fight.

C.

Negotiation takes place when there are no established set rules for resolving the conflict, or the parties prefer to work outside of an established set of rules to reach a solution.

D.

The negotiation process isn't always voluntary and a contract of agreement should be signed.

E.

The bargaining phase is the last stage of the negotiation process.

F.

The preparation phase is the first stage of the negotiation process.

Questions 28

Which of the following best describes generic competitors?

Options:
A.

Competitors which compete for the same income as the company.

B.

Competitors which compete with products which, although technically quite different, satisfy the same needs.

C.

Competitors which have similar goods but not necessarily the same size or structure organisation.

D.

Competitors which have similar size and structure and offer similar products to the same customers. 

Questions 29

The advantages of embedding the finance function within the business unit include which THREE of the following?

Options:
A.

It allows the accountant to provide information specific to a particular business unit with greater efficiency.

B.

It prevents duplication of effort across the organisation.

C.

It enables strong relationships to be developed between the accountant and the rest of the management team within a particular business unit.

D.

It means that the accountant is able to develop best practice that can be of benefit to the whole company.

E.

It allows the accountant to build up detailed local knowledge and understanding of the business unit.

Questions 30

An experienced IT project manager provides the following advice about planning a new project:

 

"The project should start with a Requirements Analysis which should take 10 days.  When this is finished Detailed Design (10 days) and Interface studies (15 days) can start at the same time. As soon as they are both complete Prototyping can start (30 days).

 

Prototyping is the predecessor of both Implementation (10 days) and Data Conversion (20 days).

 

Go-Live is the final activity (5 days) and follows when Implementation and Data Conversion are both complete."

 

Using critical path analysis which statements are correct.

 

Select ALL that apply.

Options:
A.

The planned duration of the project is 80 days.

B.

The critical path runs through five activities.

C.

Data Conversion is non-critical and has float of 25 days.

D.

There are four non-critical activities.