Free IIA IIA-CIA-Part3 Practice Exam with Questions & Answers

At the end of an accounting period, certain accounts must be closed to prepare financial statements and reset balances for the next period. The accounts that must be closed are temporary accounts, which include all income statement accounts (revenues, expenses, and gains/losses).

Why Option A (Income statement accounts) is Correct:

Income statement accounts (revenues, expenses, gains, and losses) are temporary accounts that track financial performance for a specific period.

At the end of the period, these accounts are closed to the retained earnings account to reset them to zero for the next period.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option B (Balance sheet accounts):

Incorrect because balance sheet accounts (assets, liabilities, and equity) are permanent accounts that carry their balances forward to the next period.

Option C (Permanent accounts):

Incorrect because permanent accounts include all balance sheet accounts, which are never closed.

Option D (Real accounts):

Incorrect because real accounts refer to balance sheet accounts (assets, liabilities, and equity), which remain open.

IIA GTAG – "Auditing Financial Close Processes": Discusses the closing of temporary accounts at the period end.

COSO Internal Control – Integrated Framework: Recommends proper financial reporting controls, including account closures.

IFRS & GAAP Accounting Standards: Define temporary and permanent accounts in financial reporting.

IIA References:Thus, the correct answer is A. Income statement accounts.

Efficiency indicators measure how well resources are used to produce outputs. The number of audits completed reflects efficiency because it shows how effectively the internal audit function utilizes available resources to deliver its plan.

Option B (observations) reflects risk exposure, not efficiency. Option C measures effectiveness (impact of audit work), not efficiency. Option D reflects investment in staff development, not operational efficiency.

The CAE must communicate significant risk exposures and control issues to the board. A regulatory noncompliance issue that could result in significant fines qualifies as a high residual risk. Internal audit should not implement corrective actions (management’s responsibility) or recommend disciplinary action. While discussions with management (Option A) are appropriate, the ultimate duty is to escalate the matter to the board (Option C).

The root cause is the lack of a structured process for updating access rights when employees change positions. The best recommendation is to establish a role-based access control system, where access rights are determined and approved by process owners, not left to administrators.

Option A is corrective but only retrospective. Option B wrongly blames administrators without addressing the systemic issue. Option C risks inconsistency, as administrators should not decide rights.

Data cleaning (also called data cleansing or scrubbing) is a critical step in data analytics to ensure accuracy, consistency, and reliability. Removing duplicate records is a key data cleaning technique that improves data quality.

Improves Data Integrity – Prevents misleading results caused by duplicate values.

Enhances Data Accuracy – Ensures that analytics are based on unique and valid information.

Optimizes Performance – Reduces redundancy, improving processing speed and efficiency.

Prevents Reporting Errors – Ensures accurate insights for decision-making.

A. Deploys data visualization tool – Visualization tools help interpret data but do not clean it.

B. Adopt standardized data analysis software – Software tools support analysis but do not eliminate duplicate records automatically.

C. Define analytics objectives and establish outcomes – This step is important for analysis strategy, but it does not clean data.

IIA’s GTAG on Data Analytics – Emphasizes the importance of data cleansing in ensuring reliable analytics.

COBIT 2019 (Data Management Framework) – Highlights duplicate removal as a best practice in data governance.

ISO 8000-110 (Data Quality Standard) – Recommends eliminating duplicate records for high-quality analytics.

Why Eliminating Duplicate Records is the Correct Answer?Why Not the Other Options?IIA References:✅ Final Answer: D. Eliminate duplicate records.

Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory of Motivation divides workplace factors into:

Hygiene factors (which prevent dissatisfaction but do not increase satisfaction) – e.g., salary, security, relationships.

Motivators (which drive job satisfaction and performance) – e.g., recognition, achievement, responsibility, and personal growth.

Employees most often mention recognition as a key factor in job satisfaction, as it directly impacts motivation and engagement.

(A) Incorrect – Security.

Job security is a hygiene factor, meaning its absence causes dissatisfaction, but its presence does not create job satisfaction.

(B) Incorrect – Status.

Status is a hygiene factor, not a motivator. It prevents dissatisfaction but does not enhance motivation significantly.

(C) Correct – Recognition.

Recognition is a motivator, meaning it actively increases job satisfaction and is frequently cited by happy employees.

(D) Incorrect – Relationship with coworkers.

Work relationships are hygiene factors. While poor relationships can lead to dissatisfaction, strong relationships alone do not create motivation.

IIA’s Global Internal Audit Standards – Human Resources and Organizational Behavior

Discusses motivation theories and their impact on employee performance.

Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory of Motivation

Identifies recognition as a primary factor for employee satisfaction.

Analysis of Answer Choices:IIA References and Internal Auditing Standards:

To effectively mitigate and manage risks during a crisis, organizations must implement a combination of preventive and reactive measures:

Preventive measures: These are proactive steps taken before a crisis to reduce the likelihood of occurrence (e.g., risk assessments, internal controls, security protocols).

Reactive measures: These are actions taken after a crisis occurs to minimize damage, restore operations, and recover from the event (e.g., business continuity plans, incident response strategies).

(A) Incorrect – Only preventive measures.

While prevention is essential, not all crises can be avoided. Organizations also need response mechanisms.

(B) Incorrect – Alternative and reactive measures.

Alternative measures (e.g., backup systems) are part of risk management, but without prevention, risks may escalate.

(C) Incorrect – Preventive and alternative measures.

Alternative measures (e.g., backup resources) help maintain operations but do not directly address crisis response.

(D) Correct – Preventive and reactive measures.

Best practice in risk management includes both preventing crises and responding effectively when they occur.

IIA’s Global Internal Audit Standards – Crisis Management and Business Resilience

Emphasizes the need for both prevention and response strategies.

COSO’s ERM Framework – Risk Management in Crisis Situations

Recommends a combination of risk avoidance, mitigation, and crisis response.

ISO 22301 – Business Continuity Management

Highlights the importance of preventive controls and reactive response planning.

Analysis of Answer Choices:IIA References and Internal Auditing Standards:

Best practice and accounting standards require that receivables unlikely to be collected be written off to avoid overstating assets. Internal audit should recommend that management review the receivables and write off uncollectible debts accordingly.

Option A (escalation to the board) is premature; it should first be addressed with management. Option B (removing from cash flow statement) is not correct because write-offs affect the balance sheet and income statement, not just cash flows. Option D ignores a material risk of misstated financial statements.

A preventive control is designed to stop security breaches before they happen. In data center security, preventing unauthorized physical access is crucial.

Prevents Unauthorized Entry – Restricts access only to authorized personnel.

Tracks and Logs Access – Records who enters and exits the data center, enhancing security monitoring.

Enhances Security Layers – Often combined with biometric authentication or PINs for stronger access control.

Meets IT Security Standards – Aligns with ISO 27001, NIST, and IIA’s GTAG recommendations on physical security.

A. Motion detectors – These are detective controls, identifying movement but not preventing unauthorized access.

C. Security cameras – Also detective, as they record events but do not prevent physical breaches.

D. Monitoring access to data center workstations – This ensures data integrity but does not prevent physical access.

IIA’s GTAG (Global Technology Audit Guide) on Information Security – Recommends strong physical access controls like key cards.

NIST SP 800-53 (Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems) – Emphasizes access control as a preventive security measure.

ISO 27001 Annex A.11 (Physical and Environmental Security) – Requires access control for secure areas, including data centers.

Why Key Card Access is the Best Preventive Control?Why Not the Other Options?IIA References:

The retention and maintenance of internal audit engagement records, including the period of time they must be kept, is governed by the internal audit activity’s policies and procedures. These policies provide guidance on record retention consistent with organizational requirements, legal and regulatory obligations, and professional standards.

The charter (Option A) defines purpose, authority, and responsibility but does not detail document retention. The annual plan (Option B) outlines engagements but not recordkeeping. The quality assurance and improvement program (Option D) addresses continuous improvement and compliance with standards, not retention guidelines.

Therefore, the correct source for document retention requirements is internal audit policies (Option C).

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Authentication methods are categorized into three factors:

Something you know (e.g., passwords, PINs).

Something you have (e.g., ID cards, key fobs, smart cards).

Something you are (e.g., biometrics like fingerprints, retina scans).

Option C (A card-key scanner) aligns with "something you have", as it requires a physical token (card) for authentication.

Option A (Retina scan) and Option D (Fingerprint scanner) fall under biometric authentication ("something you are").

Option B (PIN code reader) is based on "something you know".

Thus, C is the correct answer because a card-key represents a physical access control mechanism based on possession.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

In data analytics, data cleaning involves identifying and correcting errors, inconsistencies, and redundancies in the dataset to ensure accuracy and reliability. By eliminating duplicate or irrelevant data, the internal auditor enhances the quality of the dataset, which is crucial for accurate analysis and risk assessment. This process is a preparatory step before analyzing the data to identify high-risk areas. Normalization (option A) refers to organizing data to reduce redundancy but is more specific to database design. Analyzing data (option B) and reviewing data prior to defining the question (option D) are steps that occur before and after data cleaning, respectively.

Understanding Project Cost Overruns and Controls

Cost overruns occur when actual project costs exceed the budgeted or planned costs. Effective controls are required to prevent, detect, and correct deviations from the cost baseline.

The most effective way to control cost overruns is through continuous monitoring and comparison of project costs against the approved cost baseline.

Why Option D is Correct?

A formal process to monitor the project status and compare it to the cost baseline ensures that deviations are identified early and corrective actions are taken.

This aligns with the IIA's International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (IPPF), specifically:

Standard 2120 – Risk Management: Internal auditors must evaluate how organizations manage risks, including financial risks related to project cost overruns.

Standard 2500 – Monitoring Progress: Ensures that corrective actions are implemented when issues arise.

IIA Practice Advisory 2130-1: Stresses the importance of monitoring activities to mitigate financial risks.

The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) also supports cost monitoring as a key control to prevent overruns.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

Option A: Reviewing and approving scope change requests is important, but it does not directly monitor or control cost overruns. Scope creep is a risk, but cost monitoring is a more direct control.

Option B: Having a control committee review overruns after they occur is a reactive measure. Proactive monitoring (option D) is more effective.

Option C: A quality assurance process for scope changes is valuable but does not directly prevent cost overruns. It focuses on project quality rather than financial control.

Effective internal controls for cost management emphasize real-time monitoring and comparison against the cost baseline to prevent and mitigate cost overruns.

IIA Standards 2120, 2500, and 2130-1 support proactive risk management and monitoring as essential best practices for internal auditors.

Final Justification:IIA References:

IPPF Standard 2120 – Risk Management

IPPF Standard 2500 – Monitoring Progress

IIA Practice Advisory 2130-1 – Internal Control and Risk Management

PMBOK – Cost Monitoring and Control

c

The CAE is responsible for monitoring progress selectively based on risk significance. Not every recommendation requires follow-up with the same intensity. Instead, the CAE should focus on high-risk issues and verify whether management has taken corrective actions.

Option A is too rigid and does not reflect risk-based prioritization. Option B is incorrect because the purpose of follow-up is not to revalidate audit issues but to ensure corrective actions were implemented. Option D incorrectly reverses the escalation order (unresolved issues must go from management → senior management → board).

Consideration is a fundamental element of a legally binding contract, referring to something of value exchanged between parties. It ensures that each party receives a benefit or suffers a legal detriment in return for the promise made.

Essential for Contract Enforceability – A contract must involve an exchange of value (e.g., money, services, goods, or a promise to act or refrain from acting).

Legal Reciprocity – Both parties must give and receive something of value to make the contract valid.

Distinguishes Contracts from Gifts – A gift is voluntary and does not require consideration, whereas a contract does.

A. Lawfulness – A contract must be lawful, but lawfulness is a requirement, not something exchanged.

C. Agreement – An agreement is part of a contract, but without consideration, an agreement is not legally binding.

D. Discharge – Discharge refers to ending a contract, not forming one.

IIA’s GTAG on Contract Management Risks – Highlights consideration as a key contract principle.

COSO’s Internal Control Framework – Covers contract law fundamentals in risk management.

Common Law and Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) – Define consideration as an essential element of a contract.

Why Consideration is the Correct Answer?Why Not the Other Options?IIA References: