Free FINRA SIE Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 10

The correct answer is D, Insider trading. Insider trading occurs when an individual uses material, nonpublic information (MNPI) to make investment decisions for personal gain. Importantly, insider trading is not limited to corporate insiders like executives or directors—it also applies to corporate outsiders who improperly obtain such information and trade on it.

In this scenario, the outsider acquires confidential information and uses it for personal benefit, which is a direct violation of securities laws and SEC regulations. This undermines market fairness because it gives an unfair advantage over other investors who do not have access to the same information.

Choice A, Tipping, refers to the act of sharing MNPI with another person, who may then trade on it. Both the tipper and tippee can be held liable, but tipping itself is distinct from personally trading on the information.

Choice B, Churning involves excessive trading in a customer’s account to generate commissions and is unrelated.

Choice C, Front running involves trading ahead of a known customer order, not using inside information.

Thus, using material nonpublic information for personal trading—whether by an insider or outsider—is classified as insider trading, making choice D correct.

FINRA Rule 4511 requires member firms to retain records, including electronic communications, in a non-rewriteable, non-erasable format (often referred to as WORM: Write Once, Read Many). This ensures that records cannot be altered or deleted once stored.

D is correct because firms must store records in a tamper-proof format.

A, B, and C are incorrect because these formats do not guarantee compliance with the tamper-proof requirements set forth by FINRA and the SEC.

Step by Step Explanation:

Interest Rate Risk: Treasury securities are sensitive to changes in interest rates. When rates rise, Treasury prices fall, exposing investors to price risk.

Incorrect Options:

Credit Risk: Virtually nonexistent for Treasuries, as they are backed by the U.S. government.

Liquidity Risk: Treasuries are highly liquid.

Prepayment Risk: Applies to mortgage-backed securities, not Treasuries.

SEC Bond Risk Disclosures: SEC Treasury Risks.

The correct answer is C, is in the money by $1.50. A call option is in the money (ITM) when the market price of the underlying stock is above the strike price.

Step-by-step, the intrinsic value of a call option is calculated as:

Market Price − Strike Price

In this case:

$36.50 − $35.00 = $1.50

This means the call option has $1.50 of intrinsic value at expiration. Since the option is in the money, it will not expire worthless—instead, it will be exercised (or automatically exercised), allowing the holder to buy the stock at $35 and potentially sell it at the market price of $36.50.

Choice A is incorrect because “at the money” would mean the stock price equals the strike price. Choice B is incorrect because only out-of-the-money options expire worthless. Choice D is incorrect because the option is not out of the money—it is above the strike price.

It is also important to note that the investor wrote (sold) the call, meaning they face an obligation to deliver the stock at $35 if exercised, resulting in potential loss.

Thus, the call option is in the money by $1.50, making Answer C correct.

Variable annuities typically include surrender charges (surrender fees), especially during the early years of the contract. A surrender charge is a fee assessed if the owner withdraws funds above permitted free-withdrawal amounts or terminates the contract during a specified surrender period. This feature is common because variable annuities are insurance products that often involve significant distribution costs, and insurers structure surrender schedules to recoup those costs if the investor exits early. On the SIE, variable annuities are treated as packaged products/variable contracts with unique fee structures, including surrender charges and separate account expenses.

By contrast, no-load mutual funds are designed specifically to have no sales charge (no front-end load and typically no deferred sales charge), though they may still have operating expenses in the expense ratio. UITs may involve sales charges at purchase, and they have a fixed portfolio that does not actively trade; they are not commonly characterized by surrender fees in the way variable annuities are. ETFs trade intraday on an exchange like stocks, and investors generally pay brokerage commissions and incur bid-ask spreads (and internal fund expenses), but ETFs do not impose surrender fees as an inherent product feature for secondary-market trades.

The concept being tested is recognition of product-specific fees. Variable annuities commonly include multiple layers of cost: mortality and expense (M & E) charges, administrative fees, underlying subaccount expenses, and surrender charges. Surrender charges are a key distinguishing characteristic and a frequent exam point because they affect liquidity and time horizon suitability.

Bond prices are quoted as a percentage of par. A call price of 107.45 means 107.45% of the bond’s $1,000 par value. Multiplying $1,000 by 107.45% produces a call price of $1,074.50. When an issuer calls a bond, it pays the call price plus any accrued interest owed up to the call date. Choice C is correct. Choice A incorrectly treats $74.50 as interest rather than the call premium over par. Choice B incorrectly treats 107.45 as an interest amount instead of a quoted percentage of par. Choice D is incorrect because accrued interest is paid to the bondholder; it is not subtracted from the call price. Callable bonds give the issuer the right to redeem the bonds before maturity, usually when doing so is economically favorable, such as when interest rates decline. The SIE outline includes debt instruments, par value, coupon value, yield, callable features, and the relationship between price and interest rates. This question tests both bond quote conversion and call settlement mechanics. Reference: Understanding Products and Their Risks; Debt Instruments; Par Value; Callable Features.

Step by Step Explanation:

SEC Rule 10b-10: Requires trade confirmations to disclose the capacity in which the firm acted (e.g., as agent or principal) and details like trade price, quantity, and commissions.

Incorrect Options:

A: Cost basis is not disclosed on trade confirmations.

B: Inventory levels are not part of the required disclosures.

C: Market maker status is not explicitly required in the confirmation.

SEC Rule 10b-10 (Confirmation Requirements): SEC Rule 10b-10.

A shelf offering allows an issuer to register securities in advance and sell them later when market conditions are favorable. The major advantage is speed and flexibility. Once the shelf registration is effective, the issuer can access the market quickly without preparing a full new registration for each takedown. Choice A is correct. Choice B is incorrect because shelf registration does not eliminate ongoing public company disclosure obligations. Issuers subject to periodic reporting must continue required SEC filings. Choice C is incorrect because the standard shelf registration period is not four years for the general SIE concept tested here. Choice D is unrelated to shelf offerings; investors are not limited to selling shares back to the issuer merely because securities were issued under a shelf registration. The SIE outline specifically includes shelf registrations and distributions, including their definition and purpose, under offerings. The technical purpose is efficient capital raising: the issuer can register now, wait, and issue later when pricing, demand, or financing needs are favorable. Reference: Section 1.4 Offerings, shelf registrations and distributions.

Bond fund net asset values generally decline when interest rates rise because the prices of existing bonds in the portfolio tend to fall. If a customer sells bond fund shares after rates have risen and the fund’s NAV has declined, the customer may receive less than the original investment. Choice B is correct. Choice A reverses the typical price-rate relationship. Choice C is incorrect because long-term bond funds are generally more exposed to interest rate risk than short-term bond funds. Longer maturities and longer durations produce greater price sensitivity to rate changes. Choice D is incorrect because bond fund NAVs fluctuate with the market value of portfolio holdings; they are not guaranteed to remain stable. The SIE outline requires knowledge of debt instruments, bond prices, yields, maturities, interest-rate risk, and the relationship between price and interest rates. It also includes open-end funds and net asset value under packaged products. This question integrates bond pricing mechanics with mutual fund NAV behavior. Reference: Understanding Products and Their Risks; Debt Instruments; Packaged Products; Investment Risks.