Free FINRA SIE Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 4

The Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) protects customers if a broker-dealer fails due to insolvency. Coverage applies to cash and securities in customer accounts, up to $500,000total, including $250,000 for cash.

A is correctbecause SIPC’s purpose is to protect against losses arising from a broker-dealer’s insolvency.

Bis incorrect because SIPC does not guarantee investment performance.

Cis incorrect because SIPC does not cover market losses.

Dis incorrect because futures contracts are not covered under SIPC.

Buying a put option gives the investor the right to sell a stock at a specific strike price, effectively setting a floor for potential losses if the stock price declines. This is a common risk-management strategy.

A is correctbecause buying puts limits downside risk while retaining the potential for upside gains.

Bis incorrect as buying puts is a bearish strategy, not one used during upward momentum.

Cis incorrect because selling call options does not hedge losses; it is a speculative or income-generating strategy.

Dis incorrect because buying calls is a bullish strategy, used during upward momentum, not downward.

Step by Step Explanation:

General Obligation (GO) Bonds: Backed by the full faith and credit of the issuing municipality, relying on its taxing power for repayment.

Revenue Bonds: Supported by revenues from a specific project or source.

Treasury Bonds: Issued by the federal government.

Corporate Bonds: Issued by corporations, not municipalities.

References:

SEC Municipal Bond Guide: SEC GO Bonds.

Step by Step Explanation:

European-Style Options: Can only be exercised on their expiration date, unlike American-style options, which can be exercised any time before expiration.

Incorrect Options:

A: Not accurate; the exercise must occur specifically on the expiration date.

C: Options cannot be exercised after expiration.

D: The expiration date depends on the option contract, not a specific weekday.

References:

Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) Guidelines:OCC European Options.

Step by Step Explanation:

REIT Requirements: REITs must invest at least 75% of their total assets in real estate to qualify for favorable tax treatment under IRS regulations.

90% Rule: Refers to the distribution requirement for taxable income, not asset allocation.

100% Rule: There is no requirement to allocate 100% of assets to real estate.

References:

IRS Publication 542 (Real Estate Investment Trusts):IRS REIT Guidelines.

SEC Regulation A provides a registration exemption for smaller public offerings but includes a "bad actor" disqualification. If certain key parties, such as the issuer, underwriter, or affiliates, have been involved in securities violations, the exemption is forfeited.

B is correctbecause underwriters are considered essential participants, and their status as bad actors disqualifies the offering.

A,C, andDare incorrect because custodians, transfer agents, and clearing corporations are not included in the "bad actor" provisions of Regulation A.

Step by Step Explanation:

Rebalancing: Ensures that a portfolio remains aligned with its target allocation. Without rebalancing, outperforming assets can become overweighted, increasing exposure to specific risks.

Incorrect Options:

Inflation: Impacts purchasing power but isn’t tied to rebalancing.

Marketability: Refers to liquidity and isn’t linked to allocation models.

Interest Rate Risk: Relates to fixed-income investments and isn’t directly addressed by allocation models.

References:

SEC Investor Bulletin on Asset Allocation: SEC Asset Allocation.

Each option contract represents 100 shares. A covered call involves selling a call option while holding an equivalent number of shares to deliver if the option is exercised.

The customer owns 1,000 shares.

Since 1 contract = 100 shares, the maximum number of contracts the customer can sell is:1,000 shares ÷ 100 shares/contract = 10 contracts.

B is correctbecause selling 10 contracts corresponds to 1,000 shares, fully covering the position.

The federal funds rate, which is the interest rate banks charge each other for overnight loans, changes frequently due to daily fluctuations in bank reserves and market conditions.

D is correctas it is the most sensitive to short-term market forces.

A,B, andCchange less frequently.

Passive ETFs track an index and require minimal management, leading to lower expenses compared to actively managed ETFs.

D is correctbecause passive ETFs are cost-efficient and have lower fees.

Ais incorrect because index ETFs have low turnover since they replicate an index.

Bis incorrect because ETFs are priced continuously throughout the trading day.

Cis incorrect as ETFs aim to match, not outperform, the index.