Free Cyber AB CMMC-CCP Practice Exam with Questions & Answers

In the context of a Cybersecurity Maturity Model Certification (CMMC) assessment, the roles and responsibilities of individuals involved are clearly delineated to ensure a structured and effective evaluation process. The term " applicable staff " refers to personnel within the Organization Seeking Certification (OSC) who possess specific knowledge or expertise pertinent to the assessment. These individuals are integral to the assessment process as they provide essential information, demonstrate the implementation of security practices, and facilitate the assessment team ' s understanding of the organization ' s cybersecurity posture.

In this scenario, the employee serving as the primary system administrator is responsible for managing and maintaining the organization ' s systems. Given their comprehensive understanding of the system configurations, security controls, and operational procedures, this individual is best categorized as " applicable staff. " Their involvement is crucial during the assessment, as they can provide detailed insights, demonstrate compliance measures, and address technical inquiries from the assessment team.

The other options can be delineated as follows:

Analyzer:Typically refers to individuals who analyze data or security incidents, often as part of a security operations center. This role is not specifically defined within the CMMC assessment context.

Inspector:Generally denotes a person who examines or inspects systems and processes, possibly as part of an internal audit or compliance check. This term is not a standard designation within the CMMC assessment framework.

Demonstration staff:While this could imply personnel responsible for demonstrating systems or processes, it is not a recognized role within the CMMC assessment process.

Therefore, the primary system administrator, by virtue of their role and responsibilities, aligns with the " applicable staff " category, playing a pivotal role in facilitating a successful CMMC assessment.

Understanding Federal Contract Information (FCI)

Federal Contract Information (FCI) is defined by48 CFR 52.204-21(Basic Safeguarding of Covered Contractor Information Systems). FCI refers to information that:

Is NOT intended for public release.

Is provided by or generated for the government under a contract.

Is necessary to develop or deliver a product or service to the government.

Excludes publicly available government information(such as information on public websites).

Excludes simple transactional information(e.g., necessary to process payments).

In the context ofCMMC 2.0, organizations thatprocess, store, or transmit FCImust meetCMMC Level 1 (Foundational), which requires implementing17 basic safeguarding practicesoutlined inFAR 52.204-21.

Why is the Correct Answer FCI (D)?

A. CDI (Controlled Defense Information)→ Incorrect

This term was used inDFARS 252.204-7012but has been replaced byCUI (Controlled Unclassified Information)in CMMC discussions.

B. CTI (Cyber Threat Intelligence)→ Incorrect

This refers to intelligence on cyber threats, tactics, and indicators, not contractual data.

C. CUI (Controlled Unclassified Information)→ Incorrect

CUI is sensitive information requiring additional safeguarding but is a separate category from FCI.

D. FCI (Federal Contract Information)→Correct

The definition of FCI explicitly matches the description given in the question.

CMMC 2.0 References Supporting this Answer:

FAR 52.204-21 (Basic Safeguarding of Covered Contractor Information Systems)

Defines FCI and the required safeguards.

Establishes17 cybersecurity practicesfor FCI protection.

CMMC 2.0 Framework

Level 1 (Foundational)is required for contractors handlingFCI.

Ensures compliance withbasic safeguarding requirementsoutlined inFAR 52.204-21.

NIST SP 800-171 and DFARS 252.204-7012

FCI doesnotrequire compliance withNIST SP 800-171, butCUI does.

Understanding CUI Protection Responsibilities

Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI)is sensitive butnot classifiedinformation that requires protection underDoD Instruction 5200.48andDFARS 252.204-7012.

Theprimary responsibilityfor handling CUIis safeguardingit against unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification.

Why " D. Safeguarding " is Correct?

TheCUI Program (as per NARA and DoD)mandatessafeguarding measuresto protectCUI in both digital and physical forms.

CMMC 2.0 Level 2 (Advanced) practices align with NIST SP 800-171, which focuses on safeguarding CUIthrough access controls, encryption, and monitoring.

DFARS 252.204-7012requires DoD contractors to implementcybersecurity safeguardsto protect CUI.

Why Other Answers Are Incorrect?

A. Shielding (Incorrect)–Shieldingis not a cybersecurity term associated with CUI protection.

B. Governing (Incorrect)–Governing refers to policy-making, not direct protection.

C. Correcting (Incorrect)–Correcting implies remediation, but the primary responsibility is tosafeguardCUI proactively.

Conclusion

The correct answer isD. Safeguarding, asCUI protection focuses on implementing cybersecurity safeguards.

This question pertains to theminimum evidence requirementsneeded by a CMMCAssessment Teamto score a practice asMETduring aLevel 2 Assessment.

The CMMC Level 2 assessment must align withNIST SP 800-171and follow the procedures outlined in theCMMC Assessment Process (CAP) Guide v1.0, particularly aroundevidence collection and scoring methodology.

✅Step 1: Refer to the CMMC Assessment Process (CAP) Guide v1.0

CAP v1.0 – Section 3.5.4: Evaluate Evidence and Score Practices

“To assign a MET determination, the Assessment Team must collect and corroborate at least two types of objective evidence: either through examination of artifacts, interviews (affirmation), or testing (demonstration).”

This meansat least two typesof the following evidence are required:

Examine(documentation/artifacts),

Interview(affirmation from personnel),

Test(demonstration of implementation).

✅Step 2: Clarify the Official Minimum Standard for a Practice to be Scored MET

The CAP explicitly states:

“A practice can only be scored MET when a minimum oftwo types of evidencefrom the E-I-T (Examine, Interview, Test) triad are successfully collected and evaluated.”

Theevidence types must come from two different categories, for example:

An artifact(Examine)+ an interview affirmation(Interview),

A demonstration(Test)+ an interview(Interview),

Etc.

This cross-validation ensures that the control isimplemented, documented, and understoodby personnel — a core principle in assessing effective cybersecurity implementation.

❌Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

A. All three types of evidence are documented for every control

✘Incorrect:While collecting all three types (E-I-T) strengthens the assessment, theminimum requirementis onlytwo. Collecting all three isnot requiredfor a practice to be scoredMET.

B. Examine and accept evidence from one of the three evidence types

✘Incorrect:This fails to meet theminimum two-evidence-type requirementset by the CAP. Single-source evidence is not sufficient to score a practice as MET.

C. Complete one of the following; examine two artifacts, observe one demonstration, or receive one affirmation

✘Incorrect:Even if two artifacts are examined,this is still only one type of evidence(Examine). The CAP requires twotypes— not two instances of the same type.

✅Why D is Correct

D. Complete two of the following: examine one artifact, either observe a satisfactory demonstration of one control or receive one affirmation from the OSC personnel.

✔This directly reflects theCAP’s requirement for collecting two different types of objective evidenceto determine a practice is MET.

BLUF (Bottom Line Up Front):

To score a CMMC Level 2 practice asMET, the Assessment Team must collecta minimum of two distinct types of evidence— from theExamine, Interview, Test (E-I-T)categories. This requirement is clearly stated in the CMMC Assessment Process (CAP) v1.0.

According to the CMMC Model and Assessment Guides, specifically the rules governing Plan of Action and Milestones (POA & M) and the remediation period, an Organization Seeking Certification (OSC) is allowed a limited opportunity to remediate certain " Not Met " practices to achieve a " Met " status without failing the assessment entirely.

Here is the breakdown based on CMMC Ecosystem protocols:

The 180-Day POA & M Rule: CMMC Level 2 allows for the use of POA & Ms for specific practices, provided they are not high-priority items (typically 5-point values in the scoring methodology). If an OSC has " Not Met " practices that are eligible for a POA & M, they have up to 180 days to remediate them.

The Remediation Period (Assessment Closeout): During the assessment process itself, there is a " remediation period " (often referred to within the 1-90 day window depending on the specific C3PAO methodology and the CMMC assessment process) where an OSC can fix minor issues identified by the assessor before the final report is submitted.

Eligibility Criteria: The question states there are 15 practices " Not Met. " While this is a high number, the CMMC rule does not automatically disqualify an OSC based solely on thequantityof practices, but rather thetype(weight) of the practices and the resulting score. To be eligible for a conditional " Met " (via POA & M), the OSC must achieve a minimum score (often 80% of the total points) and none of the " Not Met " practices can be those designated as mandatory " Met " (no POA & M allowed) in the CMMC rule.

Why " C " is correct: Because we do not know the specific weights of the 15 " Not Met " practices or the total score, we cannot definitively say theywillbe remediated (A) or that they areineligible(B). However, under the CMMC assessment framework, the OSC may be eligible to enter a remediation phase or utilize a POA & M to bridge the gap, provided they meet the scoring threshold and the specific practices allow for it.

Reference Documents:

CMMC Assessment Process (CAP): Defines the phases of assessment including the " Remediation Period. "

32 CFR Part 170 (CMMC Program Rule): Outlines the specific requirements for POA & Ms, the 180-day timeline, and the scoring parameters required to be eligible for a Conditional Certification.

The correct answer is B because FedRAMP is a federal authorization program for cloud services, not a self-assessment framework for ordinary IT contractors and not a program for on-premise products. In the CMMC context, FedRAMP becomes especially important when a contractor uses an external cloud service provider to store, process, or transmit covered defense information or CUI. DFARS 252.204-7012 requires the contractor to ensure that the cloud service provider meets security requirements equivalent to the FedRAMP Moderate baseline when covered defense information is handled in an external cloud service. FedRAMP itself also maintains a marketplace of certified cloud services, authorizing agencies, and recognized assessors. Therefore, the target participants are cloud service providers offering cloud products and services that need federal authorization or recognition. Options A and C incorrectly frame FedRAMP as a contractor self-assessment model. Option D is wrong because FedRAMP is focused on cloud service offerings, not traditional on-premise products or services. Reference/topics: FedRAMP, cloud service providers, DFARS 252.204-7012, external cloud services, FedRAMP Moderate baseline.

Best Practices for Handling Sensitive Assessment Information

CMMC assessments involve handlingsensitive and potentially CUI-related documents. Assessors must follow strictsecurity policiesto avoid unauthorized access, data leaks, or non-compliance withCMMC 2.0 and NIST SP 800-171 requirements.

Why Logging into the Client VPN on the Client Laptop is the Best Approach:

Ensures Data Protection:The client laptop is likely configured to meet security controls required for handling assessment-related materials.

Prevents Data Spillage:Keeping all assessment-related activities within the client’s secured environment reduces the risk ofdata leakage or unauthorized storage.

Maintains Compliance with CMMC/NIST Guidelines:Using aproperly configured client laptop and secured connectionensures compliance withNIST SP 800-171 controls on secure remote access(Requirement3.13.12).

Clarification of Incorrect Options:

A. " Log into the secure cloud storage service to save copies of the documents on both the work and client laptops. "

Incorrect→Sensitive data should not be duplicated across multiple systems, especially a non-client-approved laptop. Storing it on an unauthorized systemviolates data handling best practices.

C. " Log into the client VPN from the assessor ' s laptop and retrieve the documents from the secure cloud storage service. "

Incorrect→ Theassessor’s laptop may not be authorizedorsecuredto handle client data. CMMC guidelines emphasizeusing approved, secured systemsfor assessment-related information.

D. " Use their home office workstation to retrieve the documents from the secure cloud storage service and save them to a USB stick. "

Incorrect→

Transferring sensitive documents via USBintroduces security risks, including unauthorized data storage and potential malware contamination.

Home office workstationsare unlikely to be authorized for handling CMMC-sensitive data.

Understanding IA.L1-3.5.1 (Identification and Authentication Requirements)

TheCMMC 2.0 Level 1practiceIA.L1-3.5.1aligns withNIST SP 800-171, Requirement 3.5.1, which mandates that organizationsidentify system users, processes acting on behalf of users, and devicesto ensure proper access control.

To comply with this requirement, anOrganization Seeking Certification (OSC)must maintain documentation that demonstrates:

A unique identifier (username) for each system user

Mapping of system accounts to specific individuals

Identification of devices and automated processes that access systems

Why " C. User names associated with system accounts assigned to those individuals " is Correct?

This documentation directly satisfies IA.L1-3.5.1because it showshow system users are uniquely identified and linked to specific accountswithin the environment.

Alist of users and their assigned accountsconfirms that the organization has a structured method oftracking access and authentication.

It allows auditors to verify thateach user has a distinct identityand that access control mechanisms are properly applied.

Why Other Answers Are Incorrect?

A. Procedures for implementing access control lists (Incorrect)

While access control lists (ACLs) are relevant for authorization, they do notidentify users or devicesspecifically, making them insufficient as primary evidence for IA.L1-3.5.1.

B. List of unauthorized users that identifies their identities and roles (Incorrect)

Identifying unauthorized users does not fulfill the requirement of trackingauthorizedusers, devices, and processes.

D. Physical access policy stating " All non-employees must wear a special visitor pass or be escorted " (Incorrect)

This pertains tophysical security, not system-baseduser identification and authentication.

Conclusion

The correct answer isC. User names associated with system accounts assigned to those individuals, as thisdirectly satisfies the identification requirement of IA.L1-3.5.1.

TheLimited Practice Deficiency Correction Evaluationprocess occurs when anOrganization Seeking Certification (OSC)has undergone aCMMC Level 2 Assessmentby aCertified Third-Party Assessment Organization (C3PAO)and hasunresolved deficienciesin some security practices.

According toCMMC 2.0 policy and DFARS 252.204-7021, OSCs can still achieveInterim Certificationif they meet theminimum thresholdof security practices while addressing deficiencies through aPlan of Action & Milestones (POA & M).

Minimum Number of Practices Required

TheCMMC 2.0 Interim Rulestates that an OSCmust meet at least 100 out of 110 practicesto qualify for aPOA & M-based remediation.

A maximum of 10 practices can be listed in the POA & Mfor later correction.

Failure to meet at least 100 practices results in failing the assessment outright, requiring a full reassessment after remediation.

Why " C. 100 Practices " is Correct?

The Lead Assessor can recommend POA & M placementonly if the OSC meets at least 100 practices.

Less than 100 practices scored as MET means the OSC does not qualify for a POA & Mand mustretest completely.

DFARS 252.204-7021 and CMMC 2.0 policiesconfirm the100-practice thresholdfor conditional certification.

Why Other Answers Are Incorrect?

A. 80 practices (Incorrect)– Falls well below the 100-practice requirement.

B. 88 practices (Incorrect)– Still below the POA & M eligibility threshold.

D. 110 practices (Incorrect)– While meeting 110 practices would be ideal,CMMC allows a POA & M option at 100 practices.

Conclusion

The correct answer isC. 100 practices, as this meets theminimum threshold for POA & M-based Interim Certification.

Under DFARS and CMMC requirements, the prime contractor is responsible for ensuring its subcontractors meet the required CMMC level. Neither the DoD, The Cyber AB, nor OUSD A & S directly manages subcontractor certification.

Supporting Extracts from Official Content:

DFARS 252.204-7021: “The contractor shall ensure that its subcontractors have the appropriate CMMC level certification for the information they will handle.”

Why Option D is Correct:

Compliance responsibility flows through the contractor supply chain.

CMMC-AB (The Cyber AB) accredits assessors but does not police subcontractors.

OUSD A & S sets policy, not enforcement at contract level.

DoD agencies only require compliance at award/contract oversight level.

References (Official CMMC v2.0 Content):

DFARS 252.204-7021.

CMMC Model v2.0 governance guidance.

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