Free APMG-International AgilePM-Practitioner Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 4

The Facilitator should invite the following two individuals to participate in the Workshop:

D. IT Operations Manager (Solution Development Team) E. Marketing Director (Business Visionary)

The rationale for this selection is that the disagreement is between the Marketing Director, who wants the reservation system to have professional photos and video tours (which impacts how the system will be used by potential customers and affects marketing strategy), and the IT Operations Manager, who is concerned with the system ' s technical limitations and maintenance. Both of these individuals are key to resolving the issue at hand, as they represent the conflicting requirements that need to be reconciled for the project to move forward.

The Senior Management Team, which includes the roles of the Sales, Marketing, and Finance Directors, and the Chief Executive, is typically responsible for steering the project and making decisions that reflect the overall scope and objectives of the project. They would be the appropriate body to approve changes in the project scope as represented in the Prioritised Requirements List, especially for a requirement that has legal and safety implications, such as a secondary fire exit. This team would ensure that such a change aligns with the strategic goals and compliance requirements of the project.

Agile Practitioner

For each line, here is the appropriate option from A to E that applies:

The rooms and facilities must be deployed into live use at the end of each Timebox.

D. False (Assertion) True (Reason)

Rationale: While Evolutionary Development and Deployment can be combined in a timebox, it is not necessary that the rooms and facilities must be deployed into live use at the end of each timebox. Deployment into live use typically occurs after several timeboxes when the product is ready for release.

The tasks associated with each Solution Development Timebox should be included in the Delivery Plan.

A. True (Assertion) True (Reason)

Rationale: The Delivery Plan should outline the schedule of timeboxes and include the high-level activities planned for the upcoming project increment, which encompasses the tasks for each Solution Development Timebox.

The development approach should have been agreed during Foundations.

A. True (Assertion) True (Reason)

Rationale: The development approach is indeed something that should be agreed upon during the Foundations phase, as the Development Approach Definition sets the stage for how Evolutionary Development will proceed.

The resources from Timber Tigers and Earth Excavations should have been engaged before the start of Evolutionary Development.

C. True (Assertion) False (Reason)

Rationale: It is true that resources should be engaged before Evolutionary Development starts to ensure commitment and resource availability. However, the commitment is typically based on the detailed planning and agreements made during Foundations, not solely on pre-agreed resource levels at the project level.

A final Deployment phase should be held after Timebox C has completed.

E. False (Assertion) False (Reason)

Rationale: Deployment phases are usually not a one-time, final phase but occur incrementally as part of the timeboxed development. Additionally, the assessment of whether the expected benefits have been achieved is part of the benefits realization process and not necessarily the sole reason to have a final Deployment phase post-Timebox C.

C. No, because by the end of Foundations the quality expectations and overall acceptance criteria for at least the first increment should have been set, and high-level acceptance criteria set for later increments.

Rationale:

In Agile Project Management, it ' s important to establish high-level acceptance criteria early in the project to guide development and ensure that the solution meets the business needs and quality expectations. The Foundations phase is when the project ' s scope, objectives, and methods are defined, including the acceptance criteria for the first increment and at a high level for subsequent increments. This ensures that everyone has a clear understanding of what " done " looks like before development begins, reducing the risk of misalignment and rework.

The two actions that the Workshop Facilitator should take when preparing for the workshop are:

• A. Ask the Software Developer to provide an estimate of how much storage space would be required to hold photos and videos. This will provide a factual basis for the discussion about the system’s content and its storage requirements.

• B. Invite the Marketing Director to create a summary of the content they believe the system should hold and why. This will ensure that the Marketing Director’s perspective and requirements are clearly understood by all participants in the workshop.

Please note that while the IT Operations Manager, Software Developer, and the Facilitator themselves (options C, D, and E) could contribute valuable input to the workshop, these actions are not necessarily part of the Facilitator’s role in preparing for the workshop. The Facilitator’s role is to guide the discussion, not to assign ownership of the workshop, prepare the agenda, or form opinions on the content.

The correct answers are A and E .

In AgilePM, effective risk management depends on shared responsibility, continuous awareness, and proactive behaviour across the whole team. Risk is not something handled only by one role, one document, or one event. It is woven into the way the team works every day.

Why A is correct

“Team members should adopt a collaborative mindset, sharing responsibility for identifying and mitigating risks.”

This aligns strongly with AgilePM. Risks emerge from many areas:

business priorities,

technical feasibility,

compliance,

dependencies,

stakeholder engagement,

and delivery constraints.

Because of that, the best way to manage risk is for the team to work collaboratively and raise concerns early. Different people see different risks:

Mira may see value or prioritization risk,

Sukra may see architecture or integration risk,

Hira may see coordination or dependency risk,

Wanida may see compliance risk,

Developers may see delivery feasibility risks.

AgilePM encourages a culture where risks are surfaced openly and addressed together rather than left to a single person.

Why E is correct

“Risk management should be proactive and part of daily activities, not a separate process.”

This is also a core AgilePM principle. Risk management is most effective when it is:

continuous,

visible,

built into team discussions,

and handled as part of normal delivery activity.

That means risks should be considered during:

planning,

backlog discussions,

reviews,

daily collaboration,

dependency conversations,

and stakeholder feedback.

AgilePM does not treat risk as something only reviewed in occasional formal meetings. The team should be alert to emerging issues and respond before they become major problems.

Why the other options are incorrect

B. Hira should have sole responsibility for managing all risks with clear accountability.

This is incorrect. Hira, as Project Manager, has an important role in coordinating risk management, but AgilePM does not place all risk responsibility on one person. Risk management is shared across business, technical, and delivery roles.

C. Developers should resolve all risks collaboratively and promptly without escalation.

This is incorrect because some risks should be escalated. AgilePM encourages teams to resolve issues at the right level, but not to avoid escalation when broader decisions, sponsorship, governance, or cross-team intervention are needed.

D. Sukra Aroon should handle all technical risks independently to ensure the solution is fit for purpose.

This is incorrect because even technical risks often require collaboration. Sukra contributes architectural leadership, but technical risks may affect priorities, cost, compliance, usability, and business outcomes, so they should not be handled in isolation.

AgilePM perspective

AgilePM supports team behaviour where:

everyone is alert to risk,

risks are discussed early,

people collaborate across roles,

escalation happens when needed,

and risk thinking is part of everyday delivery.

So the two statements that best describe appropriate team behaviour for effective risk management are:

A, E

In the context of Agile Project Management when developing the Prioritised Requirements List during Feasibility, the two statements that align with Agile principles are:

B. The re-laying of the driveway and a landscaping solution should be listed as Must Have requirements.

E. Regulatory obligations associated with the redevelopment of Hoy Hall should be recorded as Must Have requirements.

Here ' s the rationale:

• B: In Agile, requirements are often categorized by priority such as " Must Have " , " Should Have " , " Could Have " , and " Won ' t Have for now " (the MoSCoW method). The re-laying of the driveway and a landscaping solution are essential for the project ' s success and thus should be classified as " Must Have " .

• E: Regulatory requirements are non-negotiable constraints that the project must adhere to. These should always be prioritized in the requirements list to ensure compliance and to avoid legal issues, making them " Must Have " items as well.

The correct answer is D .

This is a VUCA-based risk because the primary driver of the problem is external market fluctuation in material costs . In AgilePM, VUCA-based risks come from volatility, uncertainty, complexity, and ambiguity in the wider environment rather than from misuse of the method itself.

Here, the overspend is happening because supplier estimates have been overtaken by changing market prices , which is an external factor outside the direct control of the project team. That fits VUCA very well, especially the volatility element.

Why D is correct:

Material prices are influenced by external market conditions.

Those conditions can change after planning estimates are made.

The resulting budget pressure is therefore caused by environmental uncertainty, not primarily by a flaw in AgilePM practice.

AgilePM expects teams to stay responsive when such external conditions shift.

This means the project should now inspect impact, reassess options, and adapt delivery decisions accordingly.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Approach-based, because cost estimates weren ' t properly validated or reviewed in the Foundations phase leading to inaccuracies.

This could be true in some situations, but the scenario points to material costs exceeding initial supplier estimates , which strongly suggests a market-driven change rather than simply poor validation. The main source of risk is external cost movement.

B. Approach-based, because Agile avoids detailed early planning to focus on iterative development, making estimates vague.

This is incorrect and reflects a misunderstanding of AgilePM. AgilePM does not mean careless estimating. It balances planning with adaptability and does not make estimates vague by default.

C. VUCA-based, because internal constraints prevent Delivery Teams adjusting budgets to external changes.

This is weaker than D because it focuses on internal budget adjustment constraints rather than the actual source of the risk. The question is asking what type of risk is impacting the project, and the most direct cause is the external fluctuation in material costs.

AgilePM perspective:

AgilePM recognizes that projects operate in changing environments. External price movements are a classic case where teams must:

reassess financial impact,

review priorities,

explore alternatives,

and make informed trade-offs while protecting business value.

Since the risk comes from unpredictable external market conditions , the correct classification is VUCA-based .

Therefore, the best answer is D .