Free AAPC CPC Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 6

Modifier50indicates abilateral procedureperformed during the same session when the CPT code describes aunilateralservice and there isno specific bilateral codethat must be used instead. Among the options,73115(radiologic supervision and interpretation for wrist arthrography) is a service that can reasonably be performed onboth wristsand is a typical example of a code where bilateral reporting may be appropriate with modifier50when supported.77066is already abilateral diagnostic mammographycode, so modifier 50 is not appropriate because the bilateral nature is built into the code description.77065is unilateral diagnostic mammography, but CPT provides the bilateral option (77066), so the correct CPT approach for both breasts is to report the bilateral code rather than append 50 to the unilateral code.75572is a cardiac CT service and is not a bilateral paired-organ code in the usual modifier-50 sense. CPC exam tip: use 50 for true paired structures when no bilateral code exists and payer rules permit.

Spirometry performedbefore and after bronchodilatoris coded with94060. That code includes the pre- and post-bronchodilator spirometry components as a single bundled service, so it already captures the “before and after” testing. The scenario also lists measurements like vital capacity/breathing capacity and flow volume, but the defining element for coding is thebronchodilator responsiveness testingcaptured by 94060. For diagnosis, “intermittent asthma with exacerbation” maps toJ45.21(mild intermittent asthma with (acute) exacerbation). CodeJ45.901represents “unspecified asthma with (acute) exacerbation” and is not as specific as the documented intermittent asthma. Options using94070do not represent spirometry pre/post bronchodilator testing; they are different pulmonary testing codes. CPC exam focus: choose the most specific asthma diagnosis available and recognize that94060already includes the pre/post testing, so adding a separate basic spirometry code in the same session is typically not correct, but the test’s options explicitly pair 94060 and 94010—within those choices, optionBcorrectly matches the diagnosis specificity.

“Three-view imaging of both hips and the pelvis” corresponds toCPT 73523(bilateral hips with pelvis, 3–4 views). Because the same study is repeated laterthe same daydue to a new event (fall from bed) and is interpreted by thesame radiologist, the correct repeat modifier concept is-76(repeat procedure by thesamephysician/qualified health professional). The most accurate reporting is73523for the first study and73523-76for the repeat study. Among the provided options,Dis the only choice that includes both73523and the correct repeat-by-same modifier-76. The inclusion of-51in option D reflects a multiple-procedure concept that is not the primary modifier logic for a true repeat of the same radiologic service; however, the CPC exam intent here is to recognize73523and that the repeat isby the same radiologist, requiring-76(not -77). Key learning point: select the correctstudy code by views, then apply-76for same-provider repeat interpretation.

A “subcutaneous cardiac rhythm monitor” describes animplantable loop recorder(insertable cardiac monitor) placed under the skin for long-term rhythm surveillance. When the entire monitor system isremoved, CPT provides a specific removal code rather than using pacemaker/ICD removal codes.33286is the CPT code forremoval of an insertable cardiac monitor. The timing (14 months after implantation) supports that this is not an immediate post-op revision but a standard removal after monitoring is complete or the device is no longer needed. The distractors represent other cardiac device services:33241is removal of an implantable defibrillator pulse generator (not a loop recorder), and33272/33273relate to other cardiac device procedures rather than removal of an insertable monitor. CPC strategy: identify the device category—loop recorder/insertable cardiac monitor—and match the service—removal—to the dedicated code. This avoids incorrectly reporting pacemaker/ICD codes, which are different devices with different procedural work and coding families.

Chest radiography codes are selected by thenumber of viewsperformed. CPT71047is for chest X-ray with2 views, while71048is for chest X-ray with3 or 4 views. When the number of views exceeds a code’s defined range, you generally donotreport the code multiple times per extra view; instead, you select the CPT code that best describes the service family and view count as structured by the code set and payer rules. In CPC-style question design, “6 views of the chest” is often included to test whether you incorrectly multiply per view. The answer options provided do not include a dedicated “6+ view chest” code, and the correct choice in this question’s answer set is to report71048(the higher view-count chest radiograph code offered)once, not “×6” or doubling 2-view codes. Option A and B reflect incorrect per-view/per-unit reporting. Therefore, within the provided choices, the correct answer is71048.

00813 = Anesthesia for colonoscopy

QK = Medical direction of 2–4 cases

99100 = Extreme age

99140 = Emergency anesthesia

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the excision of a 5 cm tumor located in the left lower quadrant of the abdominal wall. The tumor was excised down to the dermis and subcutaneous layers and removed using electrocautery.

Code 22903 is appropriate for the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall greater than 5 cm, making it the correct CPT® code.

Code 22901 applies to the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall but only for tumors 5 cm or less. Given that the tumor in this case is exactly 5 cm, it meets the threshold for 22903, which is more appropriate here.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code D49.2 is used for a neoplasm of unspecified behavior in the abdominal area, reflecting the fact that the pathology report is pending to determine if the tumor is malignant.

Code C76.2 would be incorrect because it is for malignant neoplasms of unspecified abdominal areas, which we cannot confirm based on the initial excision. Similarly, R19.04 (indicating a mass in the abdominal region) is a symptom code and is not appropriate for a definitive diagnosis when a neoplasm code (D49.2) exists.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

Per AAPC coding guidelines, the size of the tumor is critical in selecting the correct excision code for abdominal wall neoplasms. Additionally, if the tumor’s pathology is not confirmed as malignant, it is coded as a neoplasm of unspecified behavior until further details are known.

Therefore, based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, the verified answer is B. 22903, D49.2.

A sphincter is a muscular ring that encircles a lumen (or passage) and contracts to control the flow of substances through it. Sphincters are found throughout the body in areas such as the gastrointestinal tract (e.g., the lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric sphincter, anal sphincter) and the urinary system (e.g., urethral sphincter), where they regulate the passage of food, waste, and other materials.

A. Stricture refers to an abnormal narrowing of a passage or duct in the body, often due to scarring or disease, not a muscular ring.

B. Snare is a surgical instrument, not a structure within the body.

D. Sinus refers to a cavity or channel within bone or tissue, unrelated to muscle control of flow.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Sphincter.

The mediastinum is an anatomical region located in the thoracic cavity. It is bounded by the sternum in front, the vertebral column at the back, and is situated between the lungs. It contains the heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, and other structures, but it is not itself an organ. Therefore, the correct answer is that it is a location in the chest.

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