Free AAPC CPC Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 4

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The otolaryngologist was asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination of the patient under general anesthesia to evaluate for injuries sustained from a traumatic fall.

CPT® Code 92502 is appropriate for a general otolaryngologic examination under general anesthesia. This code is used specifically when an ENT examination is performed under anesthesia, as was the case here.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 92512 is for nasal function studies, such as rhinomanometry, which does not apply to a general otolaryngologic examination.

Code 21310 is for the treatment of a nasal fracture (closed treatment), which would only be appropriate if the otolaryngologist had performed a fracture reduction or repair. Since only an examination was performed, 21310 is not appropriate.

Code 92502-51 (option B) is incorrect because the -51 modifier (multiple procedures) is unnecessary; only a single examination was performed.

3. ICD-10-CM Code:

Since only the examination was performed and not treatment, the ICD-10-CM code for nasal fracture (likely S02.2XXA for unspecified fracture of the nasal bones, initial encounter) would be reported separately by the facility or based on final documentation.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines support the use of 92502 for general ENT examinations performed under anesthesia, especially in cases of trauma evaluation without surgical intervention.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 92502.

The procedure described involves a LeFort I reconstruction, which is a type of orthognathic surgery performed to correct deformities of the midface. In this scenario, the surgeon performed the reconstruction in two pieces, moving the upper jawbone forward and repositioning the teeth of the maxilla. According to the CPT® guidelines, CPT code 21146 describes a LeFort I (maxilla only) osteotomy, two-piece segment, including bone grafts (includes obtaining autografts). This code matches the description provided.

Laminectomy and Facetectomy (63047 and 63048): The laminectomies at L4 and L5 with facetectomies fall under CPT codes 63047 (for the initial segment) and 63048 (for each additional segment).

Posterior Arthrodesis (22612 and 22614 x 3): The posterior arthrodesis from L1-L5 is coded with 22612 for the primary segment (L4-L5) and 22614 for each additional segment (L1-L4).

Placement of Pedicle Screws (22842): The placement of pedicle screws at L2, L3, and L4 is captured under CPT code 22842 for segmental instrumentation.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a thyroidectomy for malignancy in the right lobe, as well as the removal of the parathyroid gland due to a suspected malignant lesion.

CPT® Code 60505 is for the parathyroidectomy with exploration of parathyroid glands and is appropriate for the removal of the parathyroid gland due to a suspected malignancy.

CPT® Code 60220 represents a thyroid lobectomy (total removal of one lobe of the thyroid), which applies to the removal of the right thyroid lobe in this case.

2. Modifier 59:

Modifier 59 is added to 60220 to indicate that the thyroid lobectomy is a distinct procedure from the parathyroidectomy, performed in a separate anatomical site during the same surgical session.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 60500 (in options A and C) is for a parathyroid exploration only, not including the actual removal of the parathyroid gland, so it does not apply here.

Code 60240 (in option D) is for a total thyroidectomy, which involves removal of the entire thyroid gland. Since only the right lobe was removed, 60220 (thyroid lobectomy) is correct.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

Per AAPC guidelines, 60505 is the appropriate code for parathyroidectomy procedures involving exploration or suspected malignancy, and 60220 with Modifier 59 accurately reflects the separate and distinct thyroid lobectomy procedure.

Thus, the correct answer is B. 60505, 60220-59.

The procedure involves eustachian tube inflation to remove serous mucoid fluid in the right ear of a 2-year-old patient with chronic otitis media.

Procedure Description:

Eustachian tube inflation to remove fluid.

General anesthesia.

Incision to the tympanum and suctioning of thick mucoid fluid.

CPT® Coding:

69421-RT: Eustachian tube inflation, transnasal or transoral; with catheterization, including general anesthesia. The modifier -RT indicates the right ear.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on eustachian tube procedures.

CPT Code 43246: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, with transoral insertion of intra-abdominal tube (e.g., gastrostomy or jejunostomy)

This code describes the attempted PEG tube placement.

Modifier -52: Reduced services. This modifier is appended because the procedure was aborted and the PEG tube was not successfully placed.

ICD-10-CM Code K94.29: Other specified disorders of digestive system

This code captures the patient's chronic feeding requirement, which is the reason for the attempted PEG tube placement.

ICD-10-CM Code K44.9: Diaphragmatic hernia without obstruction or gangrene

This code reports the small hiatal hernia that was found during the procedure.

Pregnancy guidelines require O codes first.

O98.513 = COVID-19 infection complicating pregnancy, third trimester

U07.1 = COVID-19

Z3A.32 = 32 weeks gestation

Symptoms (SOB, fever) are not coded separately when integral to COVID-19.

Correct sequencing makes A correct.

30901 = Control of anterior epistaxis, limited, any method

30903/30905/30906 are for extensive packing or posterior epistaxis

For professional claims,Place of Service (POS) 12is used to indicate services performed in the patient’shome/private residence. This is a high-frequency reimbursement concept because POS impacts payer processing, fee schedules, and in some cases whether certain services are payable. POS codes like 41 and 42 are not used for a private home setting:41is typically associated withambulance—land, and42withambulance—air or water(transport settings rather than a location of patient residence). POS 65 refers to a specific facility-type setting (commonly associated withend-stage renal disease treatment facilities) and is not a home. On CPC-style questions, the key is recognizing that “private residence” equalshome—not assisted living, skilled nursing, or a facility. Correct POS reporting supports medical necessity review and correct payment and helps prevent denials, recoupments, and compliance risk. When documentation states the service occurred at the patient’s residence, POS 12 is the standard selection.

NCCIstands for theNational Correct Coding Initiative. Its purpose is to promote correct coding by identifying code pairs that shouldnotbe reported together in most circumstances, helping preventunbundlingand improper payment. The NCCI includesProcedure-to-Procedure (PTP) editsand guidance that reflect common clinical coding conventions (for example, when one service is considered integral to another). Importantly, NCCI edits do not “eliminate the need for modifiers”; rather, they clarify when a modifier (such as-59or an appropriate X{EPSU} modifier) may be allowedonly whendocumentation supports that the services were truly distinct (different site, session, lesion, or other qualifying circumstance). Options A and C incorrectly name the initiative and misstate its function, and option B is not the correct expansion or purpose. For CPC exam readiness, understand NCCI as a primary Medicare edit set widely used as a reference by many payers, supporting consistent and accurate reporting and reducing payment errors.