Free AAPC CPC Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 5

To determine the correct E/M code, we need to consider the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).

History:

The documentation indicates an expanded problem-focused history. This is supported by the detailed history of present illness, including the patient's description of symptoms, family history, and review of systems with pertinent positives and negatives.

Examination:

The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (head, neck, throat) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (thyromegaly).

Medical Decision Making:

The MDM is straightforward. The physician is evaluating a new problem (bilateral thyroid nodules) with a low level of risk. Although further workup is planned, this alone doesn't automatically increase the MDM complexity.

Based on these components, 99213 is the most appropriate code.

Why other options are incorrect:

99212: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.

99214 and 99215: Require a higher level of MDM (low or moderate complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn't support this level of service.

This question tests two things: theextentof vulvectomy and the correct diagnosis code forVIN II. VIN II corresponds tomoderate vulvar dysplasia, which is coded asN90.1. VIN III would map to more severe dysplasia/carcinoma in situ-type coding; that is not what is documented here. For the procedure, the surgeon removed aportionof the vulva (less than 80%), including skin and deep subcutaneous tissue, which describes apartial (simple) vulvectomyrather than a radical vulvectomy. CPT56625represents asimple partial vulvectomy(partial removal). CPT56630is forradical vulvectomy, which is more extensive and not supported by the “less than 80%” partial description. Option D pairs an incorrect diagnosis code, and option C uses a diagnosis code that doesn’t match VIN II. Therefore, the correct combination is56625 with N90.1.

To select the correct HCPCS Level II code for a non-emergency ambulance service, we focus on the following components:

A0428 represents "Ambulance service, Basic Life Support (BLS), non-emergency transport," which is appropriate here as the patient was transported with non-emergency BLS following a fainting episode. This eliminates options B and D, which indicate "emergency" (A0429).

QM Modifier indicates "Ambulance service provided under arrangement by a provider of services," relevant when a physician arranges the ambulance transport.

PH Modifier specifies "Physician’s office to hospital" transport, matching the scenario where the patient was taken from the physician’s office to the hospital.

Thus, A0428-QM-PH accurately describes a non-emergency BLS transport arranged by a provider from a physician's office to the hospital, aligning with choice A.

The gallbladder is part of the digestive system. It stores and concentrates bile, which aids in the digestion of fats.

It works closely with the liver and biliary tract, all of which belong to the digestive system, making C the correct answer.

Cochlear implant surgery is anearprocedure and maps to anesthesia code00120in this question’s option framework. The anesthesiologist ismedically directingCRNAs and is concurrently directing5CRNAs. Under anesthesia modifier rules, when an anesthesiologist is directingmore than fourconcurrent anesthesia procedures, the correct modifier isAD(medical supervision by a physician: more than four concurrent anesthesia procedures). Physical status is given asP3(severe systemic disease), so append-P3. The diagnosis is progressive sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear; in the options,H90.41represents unilateral sensorineural hearing loss (right ear) as provided. Options usingAAwould indicate the anesthesiologist personally performed anesthesia (not true here), andQY/QXrepresent medical direction structures but do not match the “more than four” concurrency described (which specifically triggersADin these exam-style choices). Therefore, the correct reporting by the anesthesiologist is00120-AD-P3, H90.41.

55970 = Female-to-male sex transformation

55980 is for male-to-female transformation

Unlisted codes (58999, 55899) are not used when a specific CPT® code exists

This patient presents to the ER with syncope, requiring a comprehensive evaluation and critical care. Here's the breakdown of the codes:

CPT Code 99291-25: Critical care, evaluation and management of the critically ill or critically injured patient; first 30-74 minutes  

This code is appropriate because the patient's syncope and vital signs (low blood pressure, shallow respirations, low oxygen saturation) indicate a critical condition requiring immediate intervention.

Modifier -25: Significant, Separately Identifiable Evaluation and Management Service by the Same Physician on the Same Day of the Procedure or Other Service. This modifier is appended because the critical care services were provided in addition to the separately reported procedures below.  

CPT Code 92950: Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (eg, CPR, external cardiac massage, endotracheal intubation, ventilation)

While the documentation doesn't explicitly mention CPR, it states the patient was unresponsive upon arrival but had spontaneous pulse and respirations. This suggests possible resuscitation efforts were performed by the paramedics before the physician's assessment.

CPT Code 31500: Intubation, endotracheal, emergency procedure

Although not explicitly stated, the documentation indicates the patient was placed on "high flow oxygen," which strongly suggests endotracheal intubation was performed to manage the patient's respiratory distress.

CPT Code 82803: Blood gases, arterial, pH, PCO2, PO2, with oxygen saturation; interpretation and report

This code is likely reported based on the patient's respiratory distress and the need to monitor their oxygenation status.

Why other options are incorrect:

99285: This is a standard emergency department visit code and doesn't capture the critical nature of the patient's condition.

99285-25, 99291-25, 92950, 31500, 82803: This includes 99285, which is not necessary as 99291 encompasses the evaluation and management.

99291-25, 99292-25, 92950, 31500: This includes 99292, which is for subsequent critical care time. There's no indication in the documentation that the physician provided critical care beyond the initial 74 minutes.

Under HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), PHI stands for Protected Health Information. It includes any individually identifiable health information related to a patient’s health status, provision of healthcare, or payment for healthcare. Protection of PHI is a key compliance topic on the CPC exam.

The documented service is an upper GI endoscopy (EGD) withesophageal dilationperformed using aguidewireand a passed dilator (“dilation performed over the guidewire”). In CPT, when a therapeutic endoscopic service is performed, you report thetherapeutic EGD code, not the separate diagnostic EGD code, because diagnostic visualization is inherent in performing the therapeutic procedure. Therefore,43235(diagnostic EGD) is not additionally reported. The key distinction between the dilation codes offered is the method:43248describes EGD withesophageal dilation using a guidewire technique(bougie/dilator passed over a guidewire), which matches the narrative: guidewire placed in the antrum, scope removed, and a dilator passedover the guidewireinto the stomach area. Code43249generally reflects balloon dilation of the esophagus performed endoscopically; the note does not describe balloon inflation, diameter, or balloon equipment. The hiatal hernia findings and dysphagia indication support medical necessity but do not change code selection. Thus, the correct CPT code is43248alone.

1. Procedure Type: This scenario describes a secondary repair of two extensor tendons in the wrist with a free graft. According to CPT® coding guidelines, the secondary repair with a free graft suggests a more complex repair than primary closure.

2. CPT® Code Selection:

Code 25270 is used for a primary repair of an extensor tendon in the forearm or wrist. Since this is a secondary repair, 25270 does not apply, ruling out options A and C.

Code 25272 represents the repair of a single extensor tendon in the forearm or wrist, which includes both primary and secondary repairs. However, it does not involve free grafts, ruling out option D.

Code 25274 specifically addresses the secondary repair of an extensor tendon with free graft in the forearm or wrist, which is the correct scenario described in the question.

3. Applying the Code for Multiple Tendons:

Since the procedure involves two tendons, 25274 should be reported twice (25274 x 2) to account for the secondary repair on each tendon individually.

4. Reference from AAPC CPC Guidelines:

In AAPC CPC and CPT® coding principles, tendon repair codes require careful distinction between primary repairs and secondary repairs with grafts. The guidelines specify that multiple tendons should be coded with individual codes when performed on separate anatomical structures, hence the use of 25274 twice for both tendons.

Therefore, the verified and precise answer based on CPT® guidelines and AAPC coding standards is B. 25274 x 2.