Free ECCouncil 312-85 Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 2

A zero-day attack exploits vulnerabilities in software or hardware that are unknown to the vendor or for which a patch has not yet been released. These attacks are particularly dangerous because they take advantage of the window of time between the vulnerability's discovery and the availability of a fix, leaving systems exposed to potential exploitation. Zero-day attacks require a proactive and comprehensive approach to security, including the use of advanced threat detection systems and threat intelligence to identify and mitigate potential threats before they can be exploited.

A model where all threat data is collected, analyzed, and distributed through a single central hub defines a Centralized Exchange Architecture.

In this architecture:

All participants send their data to a central system.

The central hub processes, correlates, and redistributes intelligence.

It ensures uniform analysis, consistency, and efficient management.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Decentralized: Each participant shares data directly with others without a central hub.

B. Federated: Each organization maintains its own data but participates in shared analysis through agreed protocols.

C. Hybrid: Combines elements of centralized and decentralized systems for flexibility.

Conclusion:

The described setup represents a Centralized Exchange Architecture.

Final Answer: D. Centralized exchange architecture

Explanation Reference (Based on CTIA Study Concepts):

CTIA classifies centralized architectures as systems that collect and distribute threat data through a single authoritative node.

The described activity involves pretending to be a legitimate or authorized person in order to gather sensitive information. This social engineering technique is known as Impersonation.

Impersonation is a form of deception in which the attacker pretends to be someone else — such as an employee, contractor, or service technician — to gain access to restricted information or areas. In this method, the attacker often relies on trust, authority, or familiarity to manipulate others into revealing confidential data.

In the scenario, the analyst obtained information by observing terminals, searching desks, and examining bins while pretending to be a trusted individual. This fits the definition of impersonation rather than other social engineering methods.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Shoulder surfing: Involves directly observing someone’s screen or keyboard to capture credentials or data, not pretending to be someone else.

Piggybacking: Refers to physically following an authorized person into a restricted area without proper authentication.

Dumpster diving: Involves searching discarded items, such as trash or recycle bins, to find confidential information, without human interaction or pretense.

Conclusion:

The analyst used Impersonation to pose as an authorized person and collect sensitive data.

Final Answer: A. Impersonation

Explanation Reference (Based on CTIA Study Concepts):

From the CTIA study materials under “Social Engineering and Threat Collection Techniques,” impersonation is identified as a key human-based technique for gathering information during reconnaissance.

Fast-Flux DNS is a technique used by attackers to hide phishing and malware distribution sites behind an ever-changing network of compromised hosts acting as proxies. It involves rapidly changing the association of domain names with multiple IP addresses, making the detection and shutdown of malicious sites more difficult. This technique contrasts with DNS zone transfers, which involve the replication of DNS data across DNS servers, or Dynamic DNS, which typically involves the automatic updating of DNS records for dynamic IP addresses, but not necessarily for malicious purposes. DNS interrogation involves querying DNS servers to retrieve information about domain names, but it does not involve hiding malicious content. Fast-Flux DNS specifically refers to the rapid changes in DNS records to obfuscate the source of the malicious activity, aligning with the scenario described.

Risk Prioritization is the process of evaluating and ranking identified risks based on their likelihood, potential impact, and urgency. It helps organizations allocate resources to the most significant threats first.

This step follows risk assessment and ensures that mitigation efforts are aligned with business priorities and risk appetite.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Risk identification: The initial process of recognizing potential threats or vulnerabilities.

C. Risk assessment: Involves analyzing the probability and impact of identified risks but does not rank them.

D. Risk mitigation: Focuses on implementing measures to reduce or eliminate risks after prioritization.

Conclusion:

The activity described—ranking risks by importance to determine response focus—is Risk Prioritization.

Final Answer: B. Risk prioritization

Explanation Reference (Based on CTIA Study Concepts):

CTIA identifies risk prioritization as the step that enables organizations to concentrate on the most severe risks after assessment, ensuring efficient allocation of defensive resources.

Alice, looking to gather information on emerging threats including attack methods, tools, and post-attack techniques, should turn to hacking forums. These online platforms are frequented by cybercriminals and security researchers alike, where information on the latest exploits, malware, and hacking techniques is shared and discussed. Hacking forums can provide real-time insights into the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by threat actors, offering a valuable resource for threat intelligence analysts aiming to enhance their organization's defenses.

In the Traffic Light Protocol (TLP), the color amber signifies that the information should be limited to those who have a need-to-know within the specified community or organization, and not further disseminated without permission. TLP Red indicates information that should not be disclosed outside of the originating organization. TLP Green indicates information that is limited to the community but can be disseminated within the community without restriction. TLP White, or TLP Clear, indicates information that can be shared freely with no restrictions. Therefore, for information meant to be shared within a particular community with some restrictions on further dissemination, TLP Amber is the appropriate designation.

The stage described involves analyzing gathered information and understanding known threats. This aligns with the Known Knowns stage.

Known Knowns represent threats that have already been identified, understood, and documented. Analysts in this stage work with existing data to refine and interpret known indicators or threat actor behaviors.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Unknown unknowns: Threats that are entirely unknown and undetectable with current knowledge.

Known unknowns: Threats suspected to exist but not yet clearly identified.

Unknown knowns: Information that exists but has not been analyzed or recognized as relevant.

Conclusion:

Michael is analyzing existing and understood threat data, placing him in the Known Knowns stage of cyber-threat intelligence.

Final Answer: D. Known knowns

Explanation Reference (Based on CTIA Study Concepts):

In the CTIA framework, known knowns refer to threats that are fully understood and documented, forming the basis for structured analysis.

The process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating vulnerabilities in systems is part of Vulnerability Management.

Vulnerability Management involves:

Detecting potential weaknesses or misconfigurations.

Assessing their severity and prioritizing fixes.

Applying patches or other mitigation controls.

Verifying that remediation efforts are successful.

While threat intelligence provides contextual data, the actual handling and resolution of discovered vulnerabilities fall under vulnerability management.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Threat intelligence analysis: Focuses on gathering and analyzing threat data, not fixing vulnerabilities.

C. Security awareness training: Involves educating staff, not mitigating technical issues.

D. Incident response: Comes into play after an incident has occurred; this scenario focuses on prevention.

Conclusion:

The analyst is engaged in Vulnerability Management, aimed at reducing the risk of exploitation before an attack occurs.

Final Answer: B. Vulnerability management

Explanation Reference (Based on CTIA Study Concepts):

Vulnerability management is emphasized as a preventive cybersecurity function that identifies and mitigates exploitable weaknesses.

Strategic Threat Intelligence provides high-level insights into the overall threat landscape, long-term trends, and the potential impact of emerging cyber threats on business operations and strategy. It is primarily designed for executives, policymakers, and senior management to make informed decisions that align with organizational goals and risk tolerance.

This intelligence type translates complex technical data into business-relevant language, helping leadership understand:

The motives and objectives of threat actors.

The geopolitical or industry trends affecting cybersecurity risk.

The overall security posture and areas requiring investment.

How to allocate resources for long-term resilience and compliance.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Operational Threat Intelligence:Focuses on ongoing campaigns and immediate threats relevant to security operations and incident response teams.

B. Tactical Threat Intelligence:Deals with adversary Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) and is used by SOC and defense analysts for short-term defensive actions.

D. Technical Threat Intelligence:Focuses on technical indicators such as IP addresses, hashes, and URLs, used for detection and blocking within security tools.

Conclusion:

For a CEO focusing on long-term strategic decisions and organizational resilience, the most valuable form of threat intelligence is Strategic Threat Intelligence.

Final Answer: C. Strategic Threat Intelligence

Explanation Reference (Based on CTIA Study Concepts):

As outlined in CTIA’s section on Types of Threat Intelligence, strategic threat intelligence provides executive-level insights for planning and governance, supporting risk management and long-term decision-making.