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Free ASCP ASCP-MLT Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 6

Questions 76

Provide the equivalent measurement for 1 decimeter.

Options:
A.

1 microgram

B.

100 microns

C.

100 millimeters

D.

5 millimeters

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Questions 77

The dematiaceous molds can be broadly separated into two major groups: the agents of chromomycosis that grow more slowly, maturing only after 7 days or more of incubation, and the more rapidly growing species that most commonly are clinically insignificant commensals or contaminants when recovered from clinical specimens, but in rare situations may cause opportunistic infections called phaeohyphomycosis.

Dematiaceous molds can be broadly separated into two major groups; the agents of chromomycosis and clinically insignificant commensals or contaminants. The agents of chromomycosis grow: more slowly than; more rapidly than; or generally at the same rate as the clinically insignificant commensals or contaminants?

Options:
A.

more slowly than

B.

more rapidly than

C.

generally at the same rate as

Questions 78

Fresh frozen plasma must be thawed at a maximum of 37oC in a water bath or similar equipment that has been validated and is temperature monitored. When using a water bath, the FFP should be wrapped in a plastic liner. After thawing, it is recommended that the FFP be administered immediately, preferably within 2 hours post-thaw.

The BEST way to thaw Fresh Frozen Plasma is to thaw it by:

Options:
A.

leaving it at room temperature away from agitation

B.

refrigerating the FFP on a bottom rack

C.

placing the FFP in a 37º C or lower in a water bath

D.

placing the FFP in a 121º C or higher in a steam sterilizer

Questions 79

L/S ratio <2.0 indicates an increased risk of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) at delivery. L/S ratio <1.5 indicates a very high risk of developing RDS.

Which of the following statements regarding the L/S ratio is TRUE?

The correct answer is highlighted below

A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

A ratio of 1.5:1 indicates fetal lung maturity in pregnancies associated with diabetes mellitus.

Sphingomyelin levels increase during the 3rd trimester causing the L/S ratio to fall slightly during the last two weeks of gestation.

A phosphatidylglycerol (PG) spot indicates the presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid

Lecithin is in direct ratio with sphingomyelin

Heparin contamination is characterized by an elevation in the aPTT test and can also cause an increased PT test as well. Reptilase time tests are used to elimate the effects of heparin contamination as the reagents and method are resistant to the effects of antithrombin III, unlike the PT and aPTT tests. Therefore, it would be expected that a patient sample containing pre-analytical heparin contamination will show an increased aPTT (and sometimes PT as well) while showing a normal reptilase time.

A specimen drawn from an indwelling catheter that was contaminated by heparin would be indicated by:

Options:
A.

normal PT and aPTT results

B.

abnormal PT and normal PTT results

C.

prolonged aPTT and prolonged reptilase time test

D.

prolonged aPTT and normal reptilase time test

Questions 80

Patient's with diseases such as congential hemolytic anemias and aplastic anemias require frequent transfusions. Each unit of red cells contains 225 mg of iron, which puts these patients at risk for iron overload.

Blood Bank

Patients with diseases that require chronic transfusions are at risk for iron overload.

Options:
A.

true

B.

false

Questions 81

Diagnosis of malaria may require thick smears as well as conventional thin blood smears.

A definitive diagnosis of malaria can be made by:

ASCP-MLT Question 81

Options:
A.

Serological testing

B.

Culture techniques

C.

Demonstration of the organisms in peripheral blood

D.

Biochemical reactions

Questions 82

One method of calculating a glomerular filtration rate is using creatinine and urine volume to determine creatinine clearance. The equation is as follows:

Creatinine Clearance = (urine creatinine X urine flow rate) / plasma creatinine; where urine flow rate = volume in mL /24 hours x h/60 min)

In this case = creatinine clearance = 124 X (2200/24 x hour/60) / 2 = 94.7 or 95 ml/min

What is the glomerular filtration rate for a patient with a serum creatinine of 2 mg/dL, if the urine creatinine was 124 mg/dL and the urine volume was 2.2 L/24 hrs?

Options:
A.

9.5 mL/min

B.

13.6 mL/min

C.

95 mL/min

D.

136 mL/min

E.

1.36 mL/min

Questions 83

Provide the equivalent measurement for one gallon.

Question options:

Options:
A.

3.79 liters

B.

1 liter

C.

2.5 liters

D.

4.2 liters

Questions 84

What is the first thing a phlebotomist should do in the event of an accidental needle stick?

Options:
A.

go to the employee health service and get a tetanus booster

B.

leave the area so that the patient does not notice the injury

C.

decontaminate the site and fill out an incident report

D.

check the patient's medical records

Questions 85

Which EBV markers would be MOST likely positive for an individual who had infectious mononucleosis 9 years ago?

Options:
A.

All would still be positive

B.

Anti-VCA (IgM) and heterophile

C.

Anti-VCA (IgG) and anti-EBNA

D.

None of the markers would be positive after 9 years

Questions 86

Yellow stopper tubes are used for all of the following except:

Question options:

Options:
A.

human leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing

B.

paternity testing

C.

blood cultures

D.

lead testing

Questions 87

Considering the reactions given in this case study, Yersinia enterocolitica would be the best choice.

Most strains of Plesiomonas shigelloides, Escherichia coli, and Pasteurella multocida are urease negative. Also, Plesiomonas shigelloides demonstrates a K/A reaction on a TSI slant.

The stool specimen from a patient admitted to the hospital with symptoms of appendicitis has a culture with the following characteristics:

Gram-negative bacillus

Catalase positive

Urease positive

Weakly fermentative

TSI Slant is A/A

These reactions suggest that the organism is MOST likely:

Options:
A.

Yersinia enterocolitica

B.

Escherichia coli

C.

Plesiomonas shigelloides

D.

Pasteurella multocida

Questions 88

In radioimmunassay, a fixed concentration of labeled antigen is incubated with a constant amount of antiserum such that the concentration of antigen binding sites on the antibody is limiting. If unlabeled antigen is added to this system, there is competition between labeled antigen and unlabeled antigen for the limited and constant number of binding sites on the antibody, and thus the amount of labeled antigen bound to antibody will decrease as the concentration of unlabeled antigen increases.

Which of the following choices is correct when describing the principles of competitive radioimmunoassay procedures?

Options:
A.

antibody will react preferentially with the labeled antigen

B.

antibody will react preferentially with the unlabeled antigen

C.

antibody will react with labeled antigen only

D.

antibody will react equally with labeled and unlabeled antigen

E.

antibody will react directly with radioactive labeled immunoglobulin

Questions 89

Coumarin derivatives inhibit the vitamin K dependent Factors (II, VII, X) which can be measured with the PT and monitored frequently with the INR assay.

Hematology

Warfarin-based (coumarin derivative) oral anti-coagulant therapy is commonly monitored with :

Options:
A.

APTT

B.

PT/INR

C.

APTT and PT

D.

Thrombin time

Questions 90

Platelets do not circulate in inactivated, spiny forms. The spiny, sticky form of the platelet is initiated once the platelets become activated in response to blood vessel damage.

Which of the following is not true in terms of platelet characteristics?

Options:
A.

Produced in the bone marrow by megakaryocytes.

B.

Possess an inherent sticky property that aids in adhesion and aggregation.

C.

Have a lifespan of roughly 9-12 days.

D.

Are normally found circulating in their inactive, spiny form.

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