Free NREMT EMT Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 7

The correct answers are B. Femur fracture and E. Posterior hip dislocation.

This mechanism is classically known as a “dashboard injury”, where the knee strikes the dashboard during a motor vehicle collision. The force is transmitted along the femur toward the hip.

Why B is correct (Femur fracture):

The force applied to the knee travels up the femur, which can result in:

Femoral shaft fractures

Significant internal bleeding

NREMT trauma guidance states:

“High-energy impacts to the lower extremities can result in femur fractures.”

Why E is correct (Posterior hip dislocation):

Dashboard injuries commonly cause:

Posterior displacement of the femoral head from the acetabulum

This occurs when the femur is driven backward while the hip is flexed

NREMT-aligned content:

“A blow to the knee in a seated position can result in posterior hip dislocation.”

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Tibia fracture: More commonly associated with direct lower leg trauma, not classic dashboard mechanism.

C. Ruptured peritoneum: Not a typical injury from this mechanism.

D. Rupture of the bladder: More associated with pelvic fractures, not isolated dashboard knee impact.

Exact Extracts:

“A dashboard injury can transmit force up the femur causing hip dislocation.”

“Posterior hip dislocation is commonly associated with knee impact in MVCs.”

“Femur fractures are common in high-energy trauma.”

Use the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to calculate:

Eye Opening (E): Opens to speech = 3

Verbal Response (V): Confused but appropriate words = 4

Motor Response (M): Obeys commands = 6Total = 3 + 4 + 6 = 13

However, the question states he opens eyes to voice, knows name (orientation to person), and follows commands — this would mean:

Eye = 3

Verbal = 5 (Oriented to person, but disoriented to place/time)

Motor = 6

Correct Total: 14

The correct answer is B because this patient has multiple major suicide risk indicators : he is directly expressing suicidal intent, he is living alone , has just lost his job , has no support , and expresses hopelessness by saying he sees no purpose in living. In EMS behavioral-emergency assessment, statements suggesting self-harm must be taken seriously, and patients with these risk factors should be considered high risk . EMS educational guidance includes assessing whether the patient has said or done anything indicating possible risk of suicide or violence to self .

Authoritative public health sources also identify social isolation/loneliness , unemployment , and hopelessness/depression-related distress as important suicide risk factors. That makes this patient high risk even before knowing a detailed method or timeline.

Personal injury prevention supplies are designed to protect EMS providers from physical injuries, rather than infection.

Option C (Pair of leather gloves) is correct because leather gloves protect against cuts, abrasions, and puncture injuries during rescue operations such as vehicle extrication.

Option D (N95 respirator) is personal protective equipment (PPE) for infection control, not injury prevention.

Option A and B are related to biohazard handling and decontamination.

NREMT differentiates PPE from injury-prevention equipment to ensure proper risk management.

The correct answer is A. Remove the airway and ventilate him.

In pediatric patients, improper placement or incorrect sizing of an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) can cause:

Airway obstruction instead of opening

Worsening hypoxia

Leading to cyanosis and bradycardia

The patient’s cyanosis (low oxygen) and bradycardia (late hypoxia sign) indicate that the airway intervention has failed or worsened the situation.

Immediate action is to:

Remove the OPA

Provide effective ventilations with BVM

B. Continue ventilation with the airway in place → Incorrect because the airway is likely malpositioned or obstructing airflow

C. Increase ventilation rate to 40–60 → Excessive and inappropriate; does not correct obstruction

D. Start CPR if HR < 100 → In pediatrics, CPR begins if HR < 60 with poor perfusion, not < 100

“If an airway adjunct worsens ventilation, it should be removed immediately.”

“Bradycardia in infants is a sign of hypoxia.”

“Ensure adequate ventilation before initiating compressions.”

This symptom pattern is most consistent with cholecystitis . The gallbladder sits in the right upper quadrant , and gallbladder inflammation commonly causes RUQ pain that can radiate to the right shoulder or scapular area as referred pain. Authoritative references describe acute cholecystitis with upper right abdominal pain that spreads to the right shoulder or back , which matches this question closely. ( MSD Manuals )

From an EMT test perspective, the location and radiation pattern are the biggest clues. Appendicitis usually starts more centrally and localizes to the right lower quadrant , gastroenteritis is more associated with diffuse cramping, vomiting, and diarrhea, and diverticulitis classically causes left lower quadrant pain. That makes D. cholecystitis the best answer. ( MSD Manuals )

The symptoms described are classic for a stroke (CVA). Additional hallmark findings include:

Arm drift (motor weakness or hemiparesis)

Facial droop (Cranial nerve VII involvement)

Slurred speech (dysarthria or aphasia)

These form the basis of prehospital stroke assessment tools like FAST:

Face drooping

Arm weakness

Speech difficulty

Time to call 911

Miosis (pupil constriction) and tremors are not associated with stroke in EMS context. Syncope is an isolated event and not a reliable CVA symptom.

A patient with a flail chest

A patient with a fractured tibia and fibula

A patient with burns to the hands

A patient in cardiac arrest

In an MCI, EMTs use triage to do the greatest good for the greatest number . That means patients with immediately life-threatening but potentially survivable problems are treated before patients with minor injuries, and patients in cardiac arrest are generally placed last because full resuscitation is not started during primary MCI triage.

A flail chest is the highest priority here because it can rapidly cause severe respiratory compromise and is considered an immediate life threat. A fractured tibia and fibula is serious, but it usually does not outrank a major breathing problem, so it falls into a lower priority group. Burns to the hands are important, especially functionally, but isolated hand burns are usually not as urgent as major chest trauma or significant long-bone injury during triage. A patient in cardiac arrest is the lowest priority in standard MCI triage because triage systems such as START do not direct rescuers to spend time on full arrest resuscitation while multiple salvageable patients still need care.

These symptoms are classic for endometriosis, where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. Symptoms often include:

Pelvic pain

Painful menstruation (dysmenorrhea)

Painful bowel movements or intercourse

Spontaneous abortion does not apply here due to lack of pregnancy. Premature menopause is rare at this age and presents differently. Infection is less likely in the absence of recent sexual activity or fever.

The correct answers are A. Give aspirin and E. Assist with nitroglycerin.

This patient is presenting with classic signs of acute coronary syndrome (ACS):

Crushing chest pressure

Hypertension

Normal respiratory rate

Adequate oxygen saturation (SpO₂ 94%)

Why A is correct (Aspirin):

Aspirin is a first-line treatment in suspected cardiac chest pain because it:

Inhibits platelet aggregation

Helps prevent further clot formation

NREMT-based guidelines state:

“Administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac chest pain unless contraindicated.”

Why E is correct (Nitroglycerin):

Nitroglycerin is also a primary early intervention (if prescribed and no contraindications), as it:

Dilates coronary arteries

Reduces cardiac workload

Relieves chest pain

Guidelines emphasize:

“Assist the patient with prescribed nitroglycerin if systolic BP is adequate.”

This patient’s BP (156/98) is sufficient for nitroglycerin administration.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. CPAP: Indicated for respiratory distress (e.g., pulmonary edema), not isolated chest pain.

C. Oxygen: Not routinely indicated when SpO₂ is ≥94%; current guidelines recommend avoiding unnecessary oxygen.

D. Lay the patient supine: Patients with chest pain are typically kept in a position of comfort, often sitting upright.

Exact Extracts:

“Administer aspirin to patients with suspected acute coronary syndrome.”

“Assist with nitroglycerin if prescribed and blood pressure is adequate.”

“Oxygen should be administered if oxygen saturation is below 94% or signs of hypoxia are present.”