Free NABP NAPLEX Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 3

This patient had hyperthyroidism, though the exact cause of her condition is not currently clear. The immediate treatment should focus on controlling the patient’s symptoms for which a non-specific beta-blocker is

seemingly an ideal choice. Propranolol therapy can be initiated without any adverse effects while the patient undergoes further workup of her condition. As the treatment for hyperthyroidism varies depending upon the cause of the condition, more definitive therapy should be avoided. Diltiazem (choice A) helps control heart rate

but does not have the same antiadrenegenic properties as beta-blockers/ The initial treatment for symptomatic hyperthyroidism is propranolol. Iodine (choice B) can be used in high doses to inhibit thyroid production of T3 and T4. Until it’s clear that this patient does not have an exogenous source of thyroid hormone (and until it is clear she is not pregnant), this agent should not be considered. Propylthiouracil (PTU) and Methimazole (choice C) inhibit the organification of iodine to tyrosine residues. If this patient has Graves diseases, this would be an appropriate treatment. Until a diagnosis is made, however, initial therapy should consist of a beta- blocker. Surgical treatment (choice E) of hyperthyroidism is often a reasonable treatment for patients who cannot tolerate medical therapy of radioactive iodine ablation.

Dexamethasone is associated with psychiatric disturbances. Corticosteroids may exacerbate pre-existing psychiatric conditions.

Seizure threshold can be lowered by bupropion, chlorpromazine, clozapine, maprotiline, olanzapine, thioridazine, thiothixene, and tramadol.

As the patient is over the age of 60 and he does not have CKD or diabetes, his goal BP should be SBP < 150 mmHg or DBP < 90 mmHg, and he is not currently at this goal with his medication regimen. Options are to maximize the current medication dosage (option A), or to add a second agent. Since calcium channel blockers like Norvasc are recommended as initial treatment options in African Americans, choosing Norvasc over lisinopril would probably be the more effective option.

0.05 (1000 mL) = 50 g 1000 mL × (1 hour/125 mL) = 8 hours 50 × 3 = 150 g

Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists Sulfonylureas work in beta cells in the pancreas that are still functioning to enhance insulin secretion. Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors stop α-glucosidase enzymes in the small intestine and delay digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides which lowers the levels of glucose after meals. DPP4 blocks the degradation ofGLP-1, GIP, and a variety of other peptides, including brain natriuretic peptide. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists work in various organs of the body. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists enhance glucose homeostasis through: (i) stimulation of insulin secretion; (ii) inhibition of glucagon secretion; (iii) direct and indirect suppression of endogenous glucose production; (iv) suppression of appetite; (v) enhanced insulin sensitivity secondary to weight loss; (vi) delayed gastric emptying, resulting in decreased postprandial hyperglycaemia. Thiazolidinediones are the only true insulin-sensitising agents, exerting their effects in skeletal and cardiac muscle, liver, and adipose tissue. It ameliorates insulin resistance, decreases visceral fat. Biguanides work in liver, muscle, adipose tissue via activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) reduce hepatic glucose production. SGLT2 inhibitors work in the kidneys to inhibit sodium-glucose transport proteins to reabsorb glucose into the blood from muscle cells; overall this helps to improve insulin release from the beta cells of the pancreas.

Correct: E. Shigella can cause bloody diarrhea, and frequently affects young children and institutionalized patients. The pathogen is highly contagious, and is spread via fecal-oral transmission. The pathogen can lead to severe dehydration, and even cause febrile seizures in young patients. For clinically stable patients who can be managed via outpatient therapy, the optimal treatment is via PO TMP-SMX to decrease the risk of person-

to-person transmission. Choice A – Erythromycin is the first line treatment for bloody diarrhea caused by the pathogen campylobacter. However, for the purposes of decreasing transmissibility of suspected Shigella, TMP-SMX remains the mainstay of therapy. Choices B + C – Oral metronidazole and oral vancomycin can both be used in the treatment of Clostridium deficile. Alternatively, intravenous metronidazole can be given if the patient is unable to tolerate oral medications. Choice D – Oral quinolones can be used in cases of bloody diarrhea in which salmonella is the suspected pathogen. Salmonella is caused by the ingestion of contaminated poultry and/or eggs, and can ultimately lead to bacteremia in 5-10% of cases.

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Explanation

The direct Coombs test is used to test for autoimmune hemolyticanemia – a condition in which the body attacks red blood cells, leading to anemia. Some drugs can cause a positive direct Coombs test – methyldopa being one of the most well-known (via IgG-mediated type II hypersensitivity reaction). Other drugs that can cause this effect include quinidine (IgM-mediated activation) and penicillins (at very high doses).

0.2 mg/hour basal rate = 0.2mg/hour (24 hours) = 4.8 mg Demand dose of 0.1 mg × 5 = 0.5 mg 4.8 mg + 0.5 mg = 5.3 mg

Empagliflozin is a SGLT2 inhibitor to decrease glucose reabsorption in the kidney. Linagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor that works on incretins/increase insulin secretion/decrease glucagon secretion. Pioglitazone is a TZD that increases insulin sensitivity. Exenatide is a GLP-1 agonist which increase insulin secretion/decrease glucagon secretion/increase satiety.