Free Amazon Web Services SOA-C03 Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 2

AWS CloudOps automation best practices recommend using AWS Systems Manager Quick Setup for organization-wide management and configuration of EC2 instances. The Default Host Management Configuration Quick Setup automatically enables Systems Manager capabilities such as Patch Manager, Inventory, Session Manager, and Automation across all managed instances within the organization.

When deployed from the management account, Quick Setup automatically integrates with AWS Organizations to propagate configuration and permissions to existing and future accounts. This meets the requirement for organization-wide management with no manual configuration or SSH access. AWS documentation notes:

“You can use Quick Setup in the management account of an organization in AWS Organizations to configure Systems Manager capabilities for all accounts and Regions. Quick Setup automatically keeps configurations up to date.”

Options B, C, and D require custom deployments or manual IAM updates, lacking centralized automation. Therefore, Option A fully satisfies CloudOps standards for automated provisioning and ongoing management of EC2 instances across an organization.

According to the AWS Cloud Operations and Security documentation, AWS CloudTrail is the authoritative service for recording API activity across all AWS services within an account.

When an access key is compromised, CloudTrail logs all API requests made using that key, including details such as:

The user identity (access key ID) that made the request,

The service, operation, resource, and timestamp affected, and

The source IP address and region of the request.

By searching the CloudTrail event history for the specific access key ID, the CloudOps engineer can identify every action performed by that key during the suspected breach window.

Other options are incorrect:

EventBridge (A) is event-driven, not historical.

CloudWatch Logs (B) monitors system logs, not AWS API activity.

VPC Flow Logs (D) track network-level traffic, not API calls.

Therefore, the correct solution is Option C — using AWS CloudTrail event history to audit and trace all actions executed via the compromised access key.

According to AWS Cloud Operations and Governance documentation, AWS Trusted Advisor provides automated checks for security group rules across all accounts, including identifying ports open to 0.0.0.0/0.

When viewed in organizational mode, Trusted Advisor integrates with AWS Organizations, allowing administrators to access organization-wide security findings from a central management account. This approach requires no custom code, additional infrastructure, or manual inspection, providing immediate visibility and the lowest operational overhead.

AWS CLI scripts (Option A) or Lambda automation (Option C) introduce additional maintenance, and Amazon Inspector (Option D) is focused on instance-level vulnerabilities, not network access rules.

Therefore, Option B is the AWS-recommended CloudOps best practice for centralized and low-effort open-port auditing.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract of AWS CloudOps Documents:

The correct answer is A because AWS KMS symmetric customer managed keys with automatic key rotation provide encryption, access control, and compliance with minimal operational effort. AWS CloudOps documentation states that Amazon EBS encryption supports AWS KMS symmetric keys only, and customer managed keys allow administrators to define custom key policies to control access.

Automatic key rotation is supported for symmetric customer managed keys and rotates the backing key material once every year, fully satisfying the company’s rotation requirement without manual intervention. This approach minimizes operational overhead while maintaining strong security controls and auditability.

Option B is incorrect because AWS owned keys do not allow custom key policies and therefore cannot meet the access control requirement. Option C is incorrect because asymmetric KMS keys are not supported for EBS encryption. Option D is incorrect because imported key material requires manual rotation and re-import, increasing operational complexity and risk.

AWS CloudOps security best practices strongly recommend customer managed symmetric keys with automatic rotation when organizations need fine-grained access control, regulatory compliance, and low maintenance overhead.

The AWS Cloud Operations and Security documentation specifies that for Amazon CloudFront, automatic certificate renewal is only supported for certificates issued by AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). When a certificate is managed by ACM and validated through DNS validation, ACM automatically renews the certificate before expiration without requiring manual intervention.

Option A ensures that the certificate is issued and managed by ACM, enabling full integration with CloudFront. Option E (DNS validation) is essential for automation; AWS performs revalidation automatically as long as the DNS validation record remains in place.

By contrast, email validation (Option D) requires manual user confirmation upon renewal, which prevents automatic renewals. Certificates issued by third-party certificate authorities (Option B) are manually managed and must be reimported into ACM after renewal. CloudFront does not have a direct feature (Option C) to renew certificates; it relies on ACM’s lifecycle management.

Thus, combining ACM-issued certificates (A) with DNS validation (E) ensures continuous, automated renewal with no downtime or human action required.

Per the AWS Cloud Operations and Service Catalog documentation, when a portfolio is shared across AWS accounts, the recipient account imports the shared portfolio.

The recipient CloudOps engineer cannot modify the original products or their configurations but can:

Add products from the imported portfolio into their local portfolios for deployment,

Control end-user access in the recipient account, and

Manage local constraints or permissions.

However, the recipient cannot edit, delete, or reconfigure the shared products (Options B, C, and D). The source (owner) account retains full administrative control over products, launch roles, and lifecycle policies.

This model aligns with AWS CloudOps principles of centralized governance with distributed self-service deployment across multiple accounts.

Thus, Option A is correct—imported portfolios allow the recipient to add products to a local portfolio but not alter the shared configuration.

As per the AWS Cloud Operations and Content Delivery documentation, CloudFront determines cache behavior by evaluating both origin headers (e.g., Cache-Control and Expires) and distribution-level TTL settings.

When Cache-Control max-age conflicts with the Maximum TTL configured in CloudFront, the shorter TTL value takes precedence. This results in CloudFront caching content for only 5 minutes instead of 1 hour, despite the origin headers suggesting a longer duration.

AWS documentation explicitly states: “When both origin cache headers and CloudFront TTL settings are defined, CloudFront uses the most restrictive caching period.” This mismatch causes the perceived performance drop, as CloudFront frequently revalidates content.

Therefore, Option D is correct — cache-duration settings conflict with each other, leading to unexpected caching behavior.

Per the AWS Cloud Operations and Security Automation documentation, Security Hub integrates with Amazon EventBridge to publish findings in real time. These events can trigger automated responses using AWS Lambda functions or AWS Systems Manager Automation runbooks.

In this scenario, the correct CloudOps approach is to configure the existing EventBridge rule to invoke a Lambda function that inspects the event payload, identifies the affected security group, and removes the offending inbound rule (e.g., port 21 open to 0.0.0.0/0).

This event-driven remediation provides continuous compliance and eliminates manual intervention. Cron jobs (Options B and C) contradict event-driven design and add operational overhead. Stopping instances (Option A) doesn’t address the root cause — the insecure security group.

Thus, Option D aligns with AWS best practices for automated security remediation through EventBridge and Lambda.

Per the AWS Cloud Operations, Networking, and Security documentation, the best practice for serving private S3 content securely to end users is to use Amazon CloudFront with Origin Access Control (OAC).

OAC enables CloudFront to access S3 buckets privately, even when Block Public Access settings are enabled at the account level. This allows content to be delivered globally and securely without making the S3 bucket public. The bucket policy explicitly allows access only from the CloudFront distribution, ensuring that users can retrieve PDF files only via CloudFront URLs.

This configuration offers:

Automatic scalability through CloudFront caching,

Improved security via private access control,

Minimal administration effort with fully managed services.

Other options require manual handling or make the bucket public, violating AWS security best practices.

Therefore, Option B—using CloudFront with Origin Access Control and a restrictive bucket policy—provides the most secure, efficient, and low-maintenance CloudOps solution.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract of AWS CloudOps Documents:

The correct answer is C because selective CloudFront invalidation ensures that only updated JavaScript files are refreshed across edge locations. AWS CloudOps documentation explains that invalidations remove cached objects so that CloudFront fetches the latest version from the origin on the next request.

Invalidating only changed files minimizes cost, reduces operational impact, and avoids unnecessary origin requests. This approach ensures users always receive the latest application assets without degrading backend performance.

Option A is incorrect because setting TTLs to 0 forces CloudFront to query the origin for every request, increasing load on the ALB and EC2 instances. Option B is inefficient and costly because invalidating all files is unnecessary. Option D removes the benefits of CloudFront caching and increases latency.

AWS CloudOps best practices recommend targeted invalidations during deployments to balance performance, cost, and correctness.