Free GARP 2016-FRR Practice Exam with Questions & Answers

To determine the VaR for the fully leveraged position, we need to understand how leverage affects VaR. Leverage magnifies both returns and risks, which means that the VaR for a leveraged position is greater than that of an unleveraged position.

Calculate the leverage ratio:

In a repurchase transaction with a 20% haircut, 20% of the asset's value must be provided as collateral, meaning 80% can be borrowed.

Leverage ratio LLL = 1Haircut\frac{1}{\text{Haircut}}Haircut1​ = 10.2\frac{1}{0.2}0.21​ = 5.

Calculate the leveraged position:

If the initial unleveraged position is $100, then the leveraged position is $100 \times 5 = $500.

Calculate the VaR for the leveraged position:

The unleveraged VaR is $30 on $100.

Therefore, the leveraged VaR will be magnified by the leverage ratio: Leveraged VaR=Unleveraged VaR×Leverage Ratio\text{Leveraged VaR} = \text{Unleveraged VaR} \times \text{Leverage Ratio}Leveraged VaR=Unleveraged VaR×Leverage Ratio = $30 \times 5 = $150.

References

Source: How Finance Works​

To calculate the 12-month futures price for Unico Delta stock, we use the formula for pricing equity futures, considering the current stock price, dividend yield, and the risk-free rate (LIBOR in this case):

????=????×????(????−????)????F=S×e(r−d)t

Where:

????Fis the futures price

????Sis the current stock price ($20)

????ris the risk-free rate (3% or 0.03)

????dis the dividend yield (5% or 0.05)

????tis the time to maturity (1 year)

Plugging in the values:

????=20×????(0.03−0.05)×1F=20×e(0.03−0.05)×1????=20×????−0.02F=20×e−0.02????≈20×0.9802F≈20×0.9802????≈20.04F≈20.04

Therefore, the 12-month futures contract will trade at approximately $20.04.

References

How Finance Works.pdf, p. 206 ​

Value at Risk (VaR) is a statistical measure used to assess the risk of loss on a specific portfolio of financial assets. In this case, Bank G has a 1-year VaR of USD 20 million at 99% confidence level, while Bank H has a 1-year VaR of USD 10 million at the same confidence level. The VaR figure indicates the maximum potential loss over a given period (1 year) at a certain confidence level (99%). Therefore, Bank G is taking twice the risk of Bank H as the VaR is double that of Bank H.

JPMorgan Chase's expected tail-loss methodology in VaR calculations involves:

First, computing VaR at the 99% confidence level.

Then, determining the expected tail loss in excess of that confidence level, which is then compared with the VaR estimate at the 99% confidence level.

This approach helps in understanding the potential extreme losses that might occur beyond the 99% confidence threshold.

In the event of an extreme liquidity crisis, a bank would resort to the "discount window" as a lender of last resort. This facility is provided by central banks (like the Federal Reserve) to offer loans to banks facing liquidity shortages, thereby stabilizing the financial system.

References

Standard financial practice and the role of central banks in providing emergency liquidity​​.

The market risk management function within a bank encompasses several key roles:

Establish a comprehensive market risk policy framework: This ensures that there are clear guidelines and procedures for managing market risk.

Define, approve, and monitor risk limits: This involves setting boundaries on the levels of risk that can be taken and continuously overseeing them.

Perform stress tests and other qualitative risk assessments: These are conducted to evaluate the bank's resilience to extreme market conditions and to identify potential vulnerabilities.

These activities are crucial for maintaining the bank's overall market risk exposure within acceptable levels.

Identify the transaction details:

Initial value of CDOs = $100

Haircut = 20%

Repo transaction:

With a 20% haircut, the trader can use the CDOs to obtain 80% of their value in cash:

Cash obtained=100×(1−0.20)=80Cash obtained=100×(1−0.20)=80

Explanation:

The trader buys $100 worth of CDOs and then uses these CDOs in a repo transaction to get back $80 (less interest). This fully utilizes the leverage provided by the repo transaction under the specified conditions.

A bond that pays fixed interest is more sensitive to changes in interest rates than a bond that pays floating interest. This is because the fixed interest bond's coupon payments are constant, and its price will fluctuate more as interest rates change. In contrast, the floating interest bond adjusts its coupon payments according to the current interest rates, making its price less sensitive to changes in the market interest rates.

Net Interest Income Calculation:

As previously calculated, the net interest income is $9 million per year.

Present Value of Perpetuity Formula:

Present Value (PV) = Net Interest Income / Discount Rate

PV = $9 million / 0.05 = $180 million

Correction:

The net interest income was stated as $9 million earlier, but here, let's verify this calculation:

Interest income from $120 million at 10% = $12 million

Interest expense on $100 million at 3% = $3 million

Net interest income = $12 million - $3 million = $9 million

Correct Present Value Calculation:

PV = $9 million / 0.05 = $180 million

Final Verification:

The previous net interest income used is correct and the final PV calculation should stand corrected as per the perpetual formula:

PV = $9 million / 0.05 = $180 million, confirming the right choice should be $180 million.

References

Source: How Finance Works​

An operational risk coordinator (ORC) needs to provide the main communication contact with the operational risk department (I), coordinate the collection of key risk indicators in her area (III), and coordinate training and awareness activities in her area (IV). The main reporting contact with the audit department (II) is not typically an ORC responsibility.