Free CSI CSC2 Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 5

When mutual fund distributions are reinvested, the investor receives additional units instead of cash. After a distribution, the fund’s net asset value per unit normally falls by approximately the amount of the distribution, so the investor holds more units, but each unit is worth less. Since Ella holds the fund inside an RRSP, the distribution is not currently taxable to her. Tax is deferred until funds are withdrawn from the RRSP. Therefore, she would not receive a T3 or T5 for taxable reporting on those registered-plan distributions. Option B is wrong because taxation does not occur in the year received inside the RRSP. The practical result is more units at a lower unit value.

Explanation of Answer Options:

Option A ($9.90) : Incorrect; this value does not reflect the subtraction of liabilities.

Option B ($11.90) : Correct; it accounts for the subtraction of liabilities and proper division by outstanding units.

Option C ($12.00) : Incorrect; it represents the market value of assets per unit without deducting liabilities.

Option D ($10.00) : Incorrect; this value does not align with the given data or calculations.

References to Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Study Materials:

Volume 2, Chapter 17 - Mutual Funds: Structure and Regulation, Pricing Mutual Fund Units:

Discusses the formula for calculating NAV per share, including the treatment of liabilities and market value of assets​.

Volume 2, Chapter 22 - Other Managed Products:

Covers the concept of valuation for managed funds and its importance for accurate pricing​.

Volume 1, Chapter 11 - Corporations and Their Financial Statements:

Provides foundational knowledge about book and market values used in calculations​.

The adjusted cost base of a mutual fund investment includes the original purchase cost plus reinvested distributions. Reinvested dividends are treated as if the investor received the distribution and then used it to buy additional units. Because those dividends are taxable when distributed in a non-registered account, adding them to ACB prevents double taxation when the fund is later sold. Max’s original investment was $7,000. He also received $1,000 of reinvested dividends, so the adjusted cost base becomes $8,000. The current market value of $10,000 is not the ACB; it is the proceeds or value before disposition. Option C ignores the reinvested dividends, while Option D reflects the unrealized gain. The correct ACB is $8,000.

The return on a security held for a specific period, such as 18 months, without adjusting for time or compounding, is referred to as the holding period return (HPR) . This straightforward calculation assesses total returns over the period of ownership.

1. Definition of Holding Period Return:

The HPR is calculated as:

HPR=(Ending Value - Initial Value) + Dividends ReceivedInitial ValueHPR = \frac{{\text{(Ending Value - Initial Value) + Dividends Received}}}{{\text{Initial Value}}}HPR=Initial Value(Ending Value - Initial Value) + Dividends Received​

This measure evaluates total growth, disregarding compounding or annualization.

2. Other Return Types (Incorrect Answers):

Effective Rate of Return: Reflects annualized returns considering compounding within a year. It is not applicable to non-annualized periods like 18 months.

Nominal Rate of Return: The unadjusted rate of return without accounting for inflation. While related, it does not specifically refer to the holding period concept.

Annualized Total Return: This adjusts returns to reflect an annual basis, assuming constant performance throughout the period. It is unsuitable for raw, unadjusted returns like the HPR.

References from CSC Study Documents:

Chapter 15, Volume 2: Covers the calculation of different return metrics, with detailed examples of HPR and its application​.

Portfolio Return Analysis in Section 15 explains the non-compounded nature of holding period calculations​.

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Portfolio rebalancing restores the portfolio to its target asset allocation after market movements cause some holdings to drift above or below their intended weights. Securities or asset classes that have performed strongly may become overweight, increasing portfolio risk beyond the client’s investment policy. Securities that have performed poorly may become underweight. The disciplined rebalancing process is to sell part of the overweight positions and buy underweight positions, assuming they remain suitable within the portfolio strategy. Option A does the opposite and would increase concentration in winners. Options B and C focus on creating cash rather than restoring the target allocation. The correct rebalancing action is to sell outperforming overweight holdings and buy underperforming underweight holdings.

To reduce a national deficit, governments can increase taxation to generate more revenue. This measure, combined with controlled spending, helps reduce the shortfall between revenues and expenditures.

B. Increase government spending: This would increase the deficit further unless matched by revenue increases.

C. Decrease taxation: This would reduce revenue and worsen the deficit.

D. Increase interest rates: This impacts monetary policy and borrowing costs but does not directly reduce a fiscal deficit.

Mortgage-Backed Securities (MBS) are designed to address prepayment risk , which arises when borrowers pay off their mortgages earlier than expected. Prepayments reduce the interest income investors receive and can affect the expected return on the security.

Why Prepayment Risk is Addressed :

Prepayment often occurs when interest rates decline, as borrowers refinance their mortgages. This leaves MBS investors reinvesting at lower yields, which impacts returns.

Structuring MBS helps mitigate prepayment risk through mechanisms like tranches in Collateralized Mortgage Obligations (CMOs).

Explanation of Options :

A. Liquidity : Incorrect. MBS provides liquidity to lenders but is not designed to address liquidity risk directly.

B. Interest Rate : Incorrect. MBS investors are still exposed to interest rate risk as rates impact prepayment behavior.

C. Rollover : Incorrect. Rollover risk applies to short-term debt securities, not MBS.

D. Prepayment : Correct. MBS structures are specifically designed to mitigate the impact of prepayments on investors.

The principle of retraction in retractable preferred shares allows the shareholder to force the issuing company to redeem the shares for cash at a predetermined price on or after a specified date. This feature is identical to retractable bonds and debentures, which give the bondholder the option to require the issuer to repay the principal before maturity.

A. Callable preferred shares: Callability benefits the issuer, not the holder, and is not similar to retraction.

B. Retractable common shares: Such securities are not common in the market and are not comparable to retractable preferred shares.

C. Redeemable preferred shares: Redemption is at the issuer’s discretion, unlike retraction, which is at the holder’s discretion.