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Free Isaca CRISC Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 7

Questions 301

Which of the following BEST informs decision-makers about the value of a notice and consent control for the collection of personal information?

Options:
A.

A comparison of the costs of notice and consent control options

B.

Examples of regulatory fines incurred by industry peers for noncompliance

C.

A report of critical controls showing the importance of notice and consent

D.

A cost-benefit analysis of the control versus probable legal action

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Questions 302

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

Options:
A.

The organization's structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

Questions 303

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?

Options:
A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk governance charter

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Cross-business representation

Questions 304

An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?

Options:
A.

Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.

B.

System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.

C.

The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.

D.

The cloud provider is not independently certified.

Questions 305

When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?

Options:
A.

Project execution phase

B.

Project initiation phase

C.

Project closing phase

D.

Project planning phase

Questions 306

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:
A.

Confirming the adequacy of recovery plans.

B.

Improving compliance with control standards.

C.

Providing early detection of control degradation.

D.

Reducing the number of incidents.

Questions 307

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (PII)?

Options:
A.

Business strategies and needs

B.

Security features and support

C.

Costs and benefits

D.

Local laws and regulations

Questions 308

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

Options:
A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization's risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

Questions 309

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:
A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

Questions 310

To reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, the BEST mitigating control would be to:

Options:
A.

require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement

B.

clearly define the project scope.

C.

perform background checks on the vendor.

D.

notify network administrators before testing

Questions 311

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

Options:
A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

Questions 312

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:
A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

Questions 313

The PRIMARY focus of an ongoing risk awareness program should be to:

Options:
A.

enable better risk-based decisions.

B.

define appropriate controls to mitigate risk.

C.

determine impact of risk scenarios.

D.

expand understanding of risk indicators.

Questions 314

Which of the following would MOST likely drive the need to review and update key performance indicators (KPIs) for critical IT assets?

Options:
A.

The outsourcing of related IT processes

B.

Outcomes of periodic risk assessments

C.

Changes in service level objectives

D.

Findings from continuous monitoring

Questions 315

An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?

Options:
A.

Database manager

B.

Public relations manager

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Business manager

Questions 316

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?

Options:
A.

Risk reporting

B.

Risk classification

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification

Questions 317

Which of the following techniques is MOST helpful when quantifying the potential loss impact of cyber risk?

Options:
A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Security assessment

Questions 318

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to confirm once a risk action plan has been completed?

Options:
A.

The risk register has been updated.

B.

The risk tolerance has been recalibrated.

C.

The risk has been mitigated to the intended level.

D.

The risk owner has reviewed the outcomes.

Questions 319

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:
A.

Testing is completed in phases, with user testing scheduled as the final phase.

B.

Segregation of duties controls are overridden during user testing phases.

C.

Data anonymization is used during all cycles of end-user testing.

D.

Testing is completed by IT support users without input from end users.

Questions 320

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to update following a change in legislation requiring notification to individuals impacted by data breaches?

Options:
A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Policies and standards

D.

Risk appetite and tolerance

Questions 321

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:
A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

Questions 322

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

Options:
A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed.

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle.

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources.

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information.

Questions 323

A newly enacted information privacy law significantly increases financial penalties for breaches of personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following will MOST likely outcome for an organization affected by the new law?

Options:
A.

Increase in compliance breaches

B.

Increase in loss event impact

C.

Increase in residual risk

D.

Increase in customer complaints

Questions 324

An organization has opened a subsidiary in a foreign country. Which of the following would be the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of the subsidiary's IT systems controls?

Options:
A.

Implement IT systems in alignment with business objectives.

B.

Review metrics and key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Review design documentation of IT systems.

D.

Evaluate compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

Questions 325

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?

Options:
A.

Mean time between failures (MTBF)

B.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

C.

Planned downtime

D.

Unplanned downtime

Questions 326

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

Options:
A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

Questions 327

A cloud service provider has completed upgrades to its cloud infrastructure to enhance service availability. Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) for management to monitor?

Options:
A.

Peak demand on the cloud service during business hours

B.

Percentage of technology upgrades resulting in security breaches

C.

Number of incidents with downtime exceeding contract threshold

D.

Percentage of servers not patched per policy

Questions 328

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:

Options:
A.

accountable for the affected processes.

B.

members of senior management.

C.

authorized to select risk mitigation options.

D.

independent from the business operations.

Questions 329

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

Options:
A.

The criticality of the asset

B.

The monetary value of the asset

C.

The vulnerability profile of the asset

D.

The size of the asset's user base

Questions 330

Which component of a software inventory BEST enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities?

Options:
A.

Software version

B.

Assigned software manager

C.

Software support contract expiration

D.

Software licensing information

Questions 331

Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?

Options:
A.

Human resources (HR) manager

B.

System administrator

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Compliance manager

Questions 332

An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:

Options:
A.

senior management has oversight of the process.

B.

process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.

C.

segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.

D.

risk owners have decision-making authority.

Questions 333

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's patch management process?

Options:
A.

Average time to implement patches after vendor release

B.

Number of patches tested prior to deployment

C.

Increase in the frequency of patches deployed into production

D.

Percent of patches implemented within established timeframe

Questions 334

While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:

Options:
A.

control is ineffective and should be strengthened

B.

risk is inefficiently controlled.

C.

risk is efficiently controlled.

D.

control is weak and should be removed.

Questions 335

The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:

Options:
A.

the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.

B.

security controls are tested prior to implementation.

C.

compliance with corporate policies.

D.

the risk response strategy has been decided.

Questions 336

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

Options:
A.

To assign control ownership of risk

B.

To provide a centralized view of risk

C.

To identify opportunities to transfer risk

D.

To mitigate organizational risk

Questions 337

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

Options:
A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

Questions 338

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

Options:
A.

Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C.

Revise the organization's risk and control policy.

D.

Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

Questions 339

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

Options:
A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

Questions 340

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

Options:
A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

Questions 341

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

Options:
A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

Questions 342

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?

Options:
A.

To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk

B.

To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms

C.

To evaluate threats to the organization's operations and strategy

D.

To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy

Questions 343

Which of the following BEST indicates that security requirements have been incorporated into the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:
A.

Comprehensive security training of developers

B.

Validated security requirements and design documents

C.

Completed user acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Compliance with laws and regulatory requirements

Questions 344

The BEST metric to monitor the risk associated with changes deployed to production is the percentage of:

Options:
A.

changes due to emergencies.

B.

changes that cause incidents.

C.

changes not requiring user acceptance testing.

D.

personnel that have rights to make changes in production.

Questions 345

Prior to selecting key performance indicators (KPIs), itis MOST important to ensure:

Options:
A.

trending data is available.

B.

process flowcharts are current.

C.

measurement objectives are defined.

D.

data collection technology is available.

Questions 346

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

Options:
A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

Questions 347

Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?

Options:
A.

Detective controls

B.

Administrative controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Preventive controls

Questions 348

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

Options:
A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

Questions 349

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?

Options:
A.

To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained

B.

To allow for proper review of risk tolerance

C.

To identify dependencies for reporting risk

D.

To provide consistent and clear terminology

Questions 350

A risk practitioner has been asked to advise management on developing a log collection and correlation strategy. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when developing this strategy?

Options:
A.

Ensuring time synchronization of log sources.

B.

Ensuring the inclusion of external threat intelligence log sources.

C.

Ensuring the inclusion of all computing resources as log sources.

D.

Ensuring read-write access to all log sources

Exam Code: CRISC
Certification Provider: Isaca
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: May 16, 2025
Questions: 1608

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