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Free Isaca CRISC Practice Exam with Questions & Answers | Set: 3

Questions 101

A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner

recommend be done NEXT?

Options:
A.

Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.

B.

Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.

C.

Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.

D.

Reduce the risk tolerance level.

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Questions 102

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:
A.

Number of users that participated in the DRP testing

B.

Number of issues identified during DRP testing

C.

Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing

D.

Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing

Questions 103

Which of the following will MOST improve stakeholders' understanding of the effect of a potential threat?

Options:
A.

Establishing a risk management committee

B.

Updating the organization's risk register to reflect the new threat

C.

Communicating the results of the threat impact analysis

D.

Establishing metrics to assess the effectiveness of the responses

Questions 104

The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:

Options:
A.

the third-party website manager

B.

the business process owner

C.

IT security

D.

the compliance manager

Questions 105

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

Options:
A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

Questions 106

A maturity model will BEST indicate:

Options:
A.

confidentiality and integrity.

B.

effectiveness and efficiency.

C.

availability and reliability.

D.

certification and accreditation.

Questions 107

A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?

Options:
A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk impact

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

Questions 108

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?

Options:
A.

An antivirus program

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Firewall log monitoring

D.

File integrity monitoring

Questions 109

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:
A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

Questions 110

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

Options:
A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

Questions 111

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?

Options:
A.

Implement segregation of duties.

B.

Enforce an internal data access policy.

C.

Enforce the use of digital signatures.

D.

Apply single sign-on for access control.

Questions 112

Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?

Options:
A.

The programming project leader solely reviews test results before approving the transfer to production.

B.

Test and production programs are in distinct libraries.

C.

Only operations personnel are authorized to access production libraries.

D.

A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment is allowed.

Questions 113

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:
A.

Improving risk awareness

B.

Obtaining buy-in from risk owners

C.

Leveraging existing metrics

D.

Optimizing risk treatment decisions

Questions 114

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?

Options:
A.

Ongoing availability of data

B.

Ability to aggregate data

C.

Ability to predict trends

D.

Availability of automated reporting systems

Questions 115

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate whether controls to reduce user device vulnerabilities have been implemented according to management's action plan?

Options:
A.

Survey device owners.

B.

Rescan the user environment.

C.

Require annual end user policy acceptance.

D.

Review awareness training assessment results

Questions 116

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:
A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

Questions 117

When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:

Options:
A.

low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

B.

high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

C.

high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

D.

low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

Questions 118

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

Options:
A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

Questions 119

The effectiveness of a control has decreased. What is the MOST likely effect on the associated risk?

Options:
A.

The risk impact changes.

B.

The risk classification changes.

C.

The inherent risk changes.

D.

The residual risk changes.

Questions 120

Which of the following is MOST important to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance?

Options:
A.

Business impact assessment (BIA)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Risk profile

D.

Industry benchmark analysis

Questions 121

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:
A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

Questions 122

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

Options:
A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider's control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider's control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

Questions 123

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness program?

Options:
A.

To demonstrate senior management support

B.

To enhance organizational risk culture

C.

To increase awareness of risk mitigation controls

D.

To clearly define ownership of risk

Questions 124

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

Options:
A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

Questions 125

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

Options:
A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

Questions 126

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?

Options:
A.

The impact of the risk

B.

The replacement cost of the business asset

C.

The cost of risk mitigation controls

D.

The classification of the business asset

Questions 127

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives?

Options:
A.

The organization has approved policies that provide operational boundaries.

B.

Organizational controls are in place to effectively manage risk appetite.

C.

Environmental changes that impact risk are continually evaluated.

D.

The organization has an approved enterprise architecture (EA) program.

Questions 128

Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?

Options:
A.

Risk monitoring

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk aggregation

D.

Risk assessment

Questions 129

An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?

Options:
A.

Develop new loT risk scenarios.

B.

Implement loT device monitoring software.

C.

Introduce controls to the new threat environment.

D.

Engage external security reviews.

Questions 130

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

Options:
A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

Questions 131

Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?

Options:
A.

Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes

B.

Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations

C.

Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder

D.

Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior

Questions 132

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?

Options:
A.

Risk management

B.

Business units

C.

External audit

D.

Internal audit

Questions 133

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology?

Options:
A.

Business context

B.

Risk tolerance level

C.

Resource requirements

D.

Benchmarking information

Questions 134

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:
A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

Questions 135

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

Options:
A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

Questions 136

A risk practitioner has learned that the number of emergency change management tickets without subsequent approval has doubled from the same period of the previous year. Which of the following is the MOST important action for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:
A.

Review the cause of the control failure.

B.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

C.

Recommend remedial training.

D.

Initiate a review of the change management process.

Questions 137

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

Options:
A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

Questions 138

Where is the FIRST place a risk practitioner should look to identify accountability for a specific risk?

Options:
A.

Risk register

B.

Risk scenario

C.

RACI matrix

D.

Risk response plan

Questions 139

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:
A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

Questions 140

After the announcement of a new IT regulatory requirement, it is MOST important for a risk practitioner to;

Options:
A.

prepare an IT risk mitigation strategy.

B.

escalate to senior management.

C.

perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

review the impact to the IT environment.

Questions 141

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:
A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

Questions 142

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?

Options:
A.

Cost of controls

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Probability definition

Questions 143

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

Options:
A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

Questions 144

The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:

Options:
A.

evaluate how risk conditions are managed.

B.

determine threats and vulnerabilities.

C.

estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.

D.

establish risk response options.

Questions 145

A failure in an organization’s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's IMMEDIATE concern?

Options:
A.

Threats are not being detected.

B.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

The process documentation was not updated.

Questions 146

Which of the following would MOST likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement?

Options:
A.

External audit findings

B.

Feedback from focus groups

C.

Self-assessment reports

D.

Changes in senior management

Questions 147

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

Options:
A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

Questions 148

An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:
A.

Perform an impact assessment.

B.

Perform a penetration test.

C.

Request an external audit.

D.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

Questions 149

What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?

Options:
A.

Flexibility and adaptability

B.

Measurability and consistency

C.

Robustness and resilience

D.

Optimal cost and benefit

Questions 150

During a risk assessment of a financial institution, a risk practitioner discovers that tellers can initiate and approve transactions of significant value. This team is also responsible for ensuring transactions are recorded and balances are reconciled by the end of the day. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to mitigate the associated risk?

Options:
A.

Implement continuous monitoring.

B.

Require a second level of approval.

C.

Implement separation of duties.

D.

Require a code of ethics.

Exam Code: CRISC
Certification Provider: Isaca
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: May 15, 2025
Questions: 1608

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