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Free Isaca CRISC Practice Exam with Questions & Answers

Questions 1

Which of the following is the BEST response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified?

Options:
A.

Remediate and report the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee.

B.

Verify the deficiency and then notify the business process owner.

C.

Verify the deficiency and then notify internal audit.

D.

Remediate and report the deficiency to senior executive management.

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Questions 2

IT disaster recovery point objectives (RPOs) should be based on the:

Options:
A.

maximum tolerable downtime.

B.

maximum tolerable loss of data.

C.

need of each business unit.

D.

type of business.

Questions 3

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:
A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

Questions 4

An IT department has provided a shared drive for personnel to store information to which all employees have access. Which of the following parties is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information?

Options:
A.

Risk manager

B.

Data owner

C.

End user

D.

IT department

Questions 5

Which component of a software inventory BEST enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities?

Options:
A.

Software version

B.

Assigned software manager

C.

Software support contract expiration

D.

Software licensing information

Questions 6

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

Options:
A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

Questions 7

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

Options:
A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

Questions 8

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of promoting a risk-aware culture within an organization?

Options:
A.

Better understanding of the risk appetite

B.

Improving audit results

C.

Enabling risk-based decision making

D.

Increasing process control efficiencies

Questions 9

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:
A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

Questions 10

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

Options:
A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

Questions 11

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?

Options:
A.

Change testing schedule

B.

Impact assessment of the change

C.

Change communication plan

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

Questions 12

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?

Options:
A.

Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports

B.

Information generated by the systems

C.

Control environment narratives

D.

Confirmation from industry peers

Questions 13

Within the three lines of defense model, the PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring risk mitigation controls are properly configured belongs with:

Options:
A.

line management.

B.

the IT risk function.

C.

enterprise compliance.

D.

internal audit.

Questions 14

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

Options:
A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

Questions 15

Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?

Options:
A.

Cable lock

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Data encryption

D.

Asset tag with GPS

Questions 16

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:
A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

Questions 17

Which of the following is the BEST method to track asset inventory?

Options:
A.

Periodic asset review by management

B.

Asset registration form

C.

Automated asset management software

D.

IT resource budgeting process

Questions 18

Which of the following is MOST influential when management makes risk response decisions?

Options:
A.

Risk appetite

B.

Audit risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Detection risk

Questions 19

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:
A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

Questions 20

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

Options:
A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

Questions 21

A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:

Options:
A.

ownership of responsibilities.

B.

a business recovery plan.

C.

provision for source code escrow.

D.

the providers financial statements.

Questions 22

Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?

Options:
A.

Internal and external audit reports

B.

Risk disclosures in financial statements

C.

Risk assessment and risk register

D.

Business objectives and strategies

Questions 23

Which of the following would be MOST beneficial as a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:
A.

Current capital allocation reserves

B.

Negative security return on investment (ROI)

C.

Project cost variances

D.

Annualized loss projections

Questions 24

An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:

Options:
A.

a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk

B.

decreased threat levels

C.

ineffective service delivery

D.

ineffective IT governance

Questions 25

While reviewing a contract of a cloud services vendor, it was discovered that the vendor refuses to accept liability for a sensitive data breach. Which of the following controls will BES reduce the risk associated with such a data breach?

Options:
A.

Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key

B.

Engaging a third party to validate operational controls

C.

Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor

D.

Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key

Questions 26

An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?

Options:
A.

Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.

B.

System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.

C.

The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.

D.

The cloud provider is not independently certified.

Questions 27

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

Options:
A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

Questions 28

Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?

Options:
A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

Questions 29

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

Options:
A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

Questions 30

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

Options:
A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

Questions 31

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

Options:
A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

Questions 32

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure disaster recovery staff members

are able to complete their assigned tasks effectively during a disaster?

Options:
A.

Performing parallel disaster recovery testing

B.

Documenting the order of system and application restoration

C.

Involving disaster recovery staff members in risk assessments

D.

Conducting regular tabletop exercises and scenario analysis

Questions 33

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

Options:
A.

The criticality of the asset

B.

The monetary value of the asset

C.

The vulnerability profile of the asset

D.

The size of the asset's user base

Questions 34

An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:

Options:
A.

reduce the likelihood of future events

B.

restore availability

C.

reduce the impact of future events

D.

address the root cause

Questions 35

The BEST metric to monitor the risk associated with changes deployed to production is the percentage of:

Options:
A.

changes due to emergencies.

B.

changes that cause incidents.

C.

changes not requiring user acceptance testing.

D.

personnel that have rights to make changes in production.

Questions 36

Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?

Options:
A.

Cost of implementation

B.

Implementation of unproven applications

C.

Disruption to business processes

D.

Increase in attack surface area

Questions 37

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control?

Options:
A.

Scope of the control coverage

B.

The number of exceptions granted

C.

Number of steps necessary to operate process

D.

Number of control deviations detected

Questions 38

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile?

Options:
A.

Threat landscape

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk register

D.

Risk metrics

Questions 39

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?

Options:
A.

Improved alignment with business goals.

B.

Reduction of residual risk.

C.

Increased costs due to control implementation.

D.

Decreased overall risk appetite.

Questions 40

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation when a key risk indicator (KRI) is generating an excessive volume of events?

Options:
A.

Reevaluate the design of the KRIs.

B.

Develop a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Monitor KRIs within a specific timeframe.

D.

Activate the incident response plan.

Questions 41

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

Options:
A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

Questions 42

A technology company is developing a strategic artificial intelligence (Al)-driven application that has high potential business value. At what point should the enterprise risk profile be updated?

Options:
A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon approval of the business case

C.

When user stories are developed

D.

During post-implementation review

Questions 43

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of relevant risk scenarios?

Options:
A.

Perform quantitative risk analysis of historical data.

B.

Adopt an industry-recognized risk framework.

C.

Use qualitative risk assessment methodologies.

D.

Conduct brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders.

Questions 44

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:
A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

Questions 45

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

Options:
A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

Questions 46

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

Options:
A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

Questions 47

The BEST way to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure is to:

Options:
A.

conduct an audit of files stored offsite.

B.

interview employees to compare actual with expected procedures.

C.

inspect a selection of audit trails and backup logs.

D.

demonstrate a successful recovery from backup files.

Questions 48

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

Options:
A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

Questions 49

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRis) is that (hey

Options:
A.

identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds

B.

assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds

C.

identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite

D.

help with internal control assessments concerning risk appellate

Questions 50

Which of the following risk register elements is MOST likely to be updated if the attack surface or exposure of an asset is reduced?

Options:
A.

Likelihood rating

B.

Control effectiveness

C.

Assessment approach

D.

Impact rating

Exam Code: CRISC
Certification Provider: Isaca
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Jul 18, 2025
Questions: 1641

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