How to Easily Pass the NCLEX NCLEX-RN Exam: Expert Advice

(A) Phenytoin will precipitate if mixed with Ringer’s lactate and should not be administered. (B, C) Phenytoin will precipitate if mixed with D5 in Ringer’s lactate and should not be administered. (D) Phenytoin is compatible only with normal saline and should be mixed only with normal saline for administration.

(A) Zinc oxide is not usually applied to inflamed areas because it contributes to sweat retention. (B) Talcum powder is of questionable benefit and poses a hazard of accidental inhalation. (C) Removing the diaper and exposing the area to air and light facilitate drying and healing. (D) Infants may be sensitive to one or more agents in the wet “wipes.” It is better to simply clean with a wet cloth.

(A) This answer is correct. If the client is well informed about what reactions to expect from her medication, she is more likely to follow the treatment regimen. (B) This answer is incorrect. There are many side effects that are reversible by medication, and these must be reported to the nurse or physician. There are also more severe side effects, such as neuroleptic malignant syndrome, characterized by fever, tachycardia, and diaphoresis, which can be life threatening. (C) This answer is incorrect. There is no need for weekly blood tests if the drug regimen has been followed properly. (D) This answer is incorrect. The client should continue the medicationuntil the physician recommends any change in the drug regimen. Symptoms will usually reappear if medication is discontinued.

(A) When a pouch seal leaks, the pouch should be immediately changed, not taped. Stool held against the skin can quickly result in severe irritation. (B) The skin barrier should be cut only slightly larger than the stoma (one-half inch). (C) The client should be taught to change pouches whenever possible before leakage occurs. (D) When skin sealant is used under the tape, the outermost layer of the epidermis remains intact. When no skin sealant is used, this layer is removed when the tape is removed.

(A) Spouse and adult child would be asked before a parent. (B) The order of kin relationship for an adult, as determined from legal intestate succession, is usually spouse, adult child, parent, sibling. (C) Parent and sibling would be asked after adult child. (D) Spouse and adult child would be asked before parent. Sibling would be asked last.

(A) Furosemide is a loop diuretic. (B) Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator. (C) Lidocaine is the drug of choice to treat ectopic ventricular beats. (D) Digoxin slows down the electrical impulses and increases ventricular contractions, but it does not rapidly correct ventricular ectopy.

(A) Early signs of hypovolemic shock include hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, pallor, and diaphoresis. (B) Early signs of potassium depletion include muscular weakness or paralysis, tetany, postural hypotension, weak pulse, shallow respirations, apathy, weak voice, and electrocardiographic changes. (C) Early signs of an elevated sodium level include dry oral mucous membranes, marked thirst, hypertension, tachycardia, oliguria or anuria, anxiety, and agitation. (D) This answer is correct. Important early clinical findings of a decreased sodium concentration include confusion and disorientation. Hyponatremia can occur after a TURP because absorption during surgery through the prostate veins can increase circulating blood volume and decrease sodium concentration.

(A) A decrease in plasma proteins causes a decrease in intravascular osmotic pressure resulting in leakage of fluid into peritoneal cavity. (B) Fluid and electrolyte imbalance may occur as a result of the ascites. (C) Ascites is a result of hepatic malfunction, not renal malfunction. (D) Portal hypertension causes esophageal varices, not ascites.

(A) The term heterozygote refers to an individual with one normal and one mutant allele at a given locus on a pair of homologous chromosomes. An individual who is heterozygous for the abnormal gene does not manifest obvious symptoms. (B) Disorders carried on either the X or Y sex chromosome are referred to as sex-linked recessive. (C) Either sex may be affected by autosomal recessive genetic disorders because the responsible allele can be on any one of the 46 chromosomes. (D) If both parents are affected by the disorder and are not just carriers, then all their children would manifest the same disorder.

(A) Human chorionic gonadotropin is the biochemical basis for pregnancy tests. It is produced by the placenta to help maintain the corpus luteum. Its levels climb rapidly following conception, peaking at about 8 weeks and then gradually decreasing to low levels after 16 weeks. (B) Estrogen does steadily rise throughout pregnancy, increasing to 30 times that of prepregnancy levels. Although estrogen levels do change during pregnancy, it is not used as the main hormone of evaluation in pregnancy tests. (C) α-Fetoprotein is the major protein in the serum of theembryo. It is initially produced by the yolk sac. (D) Lecithin and sphingomyelin are two phospholipids of which fetal lung surfactant is composed. Levels are evaluated to determine fetal lung maturity.

(A) Unusually aggressive behavior does not indicate a deepseated problem. (B) A lack of social interest results in poor participation in play activities with peers. Aggression would not be an expected behavior. (C) The aggressive behavior was newly developed and not a routine behavior. (D) Play provides the child with opportunities for coping and adaptation. Aggression during the play activities would indicate a coping response.

(A) Children may become depressed with a changed appearance and not want to look at themselves or have others see them. (B) The hair will fall out in clumps, causing patchy baldness that is quite noticeable and traumatic to children and their families. (C) Having a wig that looks like a girl’s own hair can be a psychological boost to children and is helpful in fostering later adjustments to hair loss. (D) Families may become accustomed to seeing their children without hair, but the loss is traumatic to them and will continue to bother them.

(A) D5in normal saline would increase serum glucose. (B) D5W would increase serum glucose. (C) A concentration of 0.9 NS is used to correct extracellular fluid depletion. (D) D5in Ringer’s lactate would increase serum glucose.

(A) Vitamin C does not directly affect clotting. (B) Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that depends on liver function for absorption. Vitamin K is essential for clotting. (C) Vitamin E does not directly affect clotting. (D) Vitamin A does not directly affect clotting.

(A) Once the feeding tube placement is confirmed in the stomach, aspiration can occur if the client’s stomach becomes too full. When suctioning the trachea, if secretions resemble tube feeding, the client has aspirated the feeding. (B) Because the trachea provides direct access to a client’s airway, it would not be possible to place the catheter in the esophagus. (C) Blue-colored sputum is never considered a normal finding and should be reported and documented. (D) The nurse confirmed placement of the feeding tube in the stomach prior to initiating the tube feeding; therefore, it is highly unlikely that the feeding tube would be located in the trachea.

(A) Agoraphobia is the most pervasive and serious phobic disorder. (B) Women compose 70%–85% of agoraphobia sufferers. (C) Agoraphobia is an acute disorder that immobilizes the sufferer with extreme anxiety. (D) Chlorpromazine is not a drug used to treat phobias.

(A) Dysuria is not a common symptom of heparin overdose. (B) Although epistaxis and hematuria are common symptoms of heparin overdose, dysuria is not. (C) Vertigo is not a common symptom of heparin overdose. (D) Hematuria, ecchymosis, and epistaxis are the most common signs and symptoms of a heparin overdose. Others are thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, and local injection site complications.

(A) Nudity is not a trigger for reminding males to perform TSE. (B) Testicles become more firm when exposed to cool temperatures, but not large and bulky. (C) The testicles will be lower and more easily palpated with warmer temperatures. A protective mechanism of the body to protect sperm production is for the scrotum to pull closer to the body when exposed to cooler temperatures. (D) The examination should not be painful.

(A) This response validates the client’s experience and presents reality to him. (B) This nontherapeutic response minimizes and dismisses the client’s verbalized experience. (C) This response can be interpreted by a paranoid client as a threat, thereby increasing the client’s potential for violence and loss of control. (D) This response is also threatening. The client’s behavior does not call for restraints because he has not lost control or hurt anyone. If seclusion or restraints were indicated, the nurse should never confront the client alone.

(A) Allowing the client to remain in the position of comfort will not resolve the atelectasis. This position, if left unchanged, over time may actually increase the atelectasis. (B) Analgesics will not resolve the atelectasis and may contribute to it if proper nursing actions are not taken to help resolve the atelectasis. (C) Having the client turn, cough, and deep breathe every 1–2 hours will aid in resolving the atelectasis. Surgery clients are at risk for postoperative respiratory complications because pulmonary function is reduced as a result of anesthesia and surgery. (D) Remaining with the client and keeping him calm and quiet will not affect the client’s anxiety, restlessness, or help to resolve the atelectasis. The cause (atelectasis) needs to be treated, not the symptoms (anxiety and restlessness).